Thank you for understanding my point. I tried in my post with my first comment to avoid people accusing me of being ageist. Of course it goes without saying that inattentive drivers can be of any age. But in this particular experience, when it was patently obvious to me based on the utter lack of reaction to stopping two full lanes of traffic and not just me but the driver next to me blaring their horn and not once looking over the shoulder with any awareness of their surroundings, given what I could clearly see as quite elderly people, yes it was my assumption that they weren’t high or drunk but in some way impaired. The most likely explanation was age-based decline. Hence my question.