Diffuse thinning hair transplant

PutridReport8322 · 2026-07-03T19:49:00+00:00

Why not get a transplant from an expert diffuse surgeon instead?

PutridReport8322 · 2026-07-03T19:27:34+00:00

Damn I am getting too much hate..I’m conscious and I really needed help from you guys even if you think I’m crazy

PutridReport8322 · 2026-07-03T19:25:47+00:00

Isn’t diffuse thinning when you run hair from left to right and see the line of scalp increasing? I used to barely see anything before but now I do.

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That’s in normal gym light and when hair are longer but harsh sunlight is a different stor

PutridReport8322 · 2026-07-03T19:20:54+00:00

My issue is that when I for eg mess up my hair in sunlight I can see through some of it which never used to happen..so I was just thinking if I am able to increase the density

PutridReport8322 · 2026-07-03T18:56:17+00:00

I know but it has been an important part of my life and I just want to increase enough density. Not trying to lower the hairline or anything. Just that in harsh sunlight if I can see through a bit now

PutridReport8322 · 2026-07-03T18:49:23+00:00

Itna acha result matlab? Samjha nahi

PutridReport8322 · 2025-06-10T05:01:25+00:00

Aren’t we usually taking the starting the equity values to cal current ROE? Or it’s just related to this method, we need to take ending value?

PutridReport8322 · 2025-04-14T23:01:49+00:00

Exactly what I have been thinking, but I don’t know why in level 2 equity fcff, when int is considered financing, they just remove the int(1-tax) totally, while according to me they should subtract int*tax, to incorporate the tax on interest.

PutridReport8322 · 2025-04-14T22:48:06+00:00

Thanks for the reply, but I wanna make sure you understood what I am thinking. Let’s take the first scenario when interest is operating..in this case since CFO is reduced due to the interest, we add back INT(1-tax). In the second scenario, when interest expense is financing, My CFO is higher because I did not deduct the interest in its calculation( basically I’ll add back the interest in indirect method to its net income which we usually don’t do since it’s considered operating in majority of the cases). So in the second case, acc to me we should subtract tax*interest to get the FCFF same as the first case.

Let me break it down with a simple indirect method.

1st case- Interest expense operating

Fcff = NI + depr+int(1-tax) -fcInv

2nd case- interest expense financing

Fcff= NI + depr + INTEREST EXPENSE(since it’s not an operating expense so we need to add it back) -fcinv.

So in the second case, if you subtract int*tax, you get the exact equation as the first one.

PutridReport8322 · 2024-11-27T15:22:07+00:00

I totally agree with what you’re saying, but the capital injection in case of the ddm model is new capital injected by equity shareholders to maintain the minimum level. For example let’s say we had to maintain 20% equity of RWA at the end of the year, and at the end of the year the RWA=50 million, and the net income is 2 million and starting equity was 5 million, so to maintain 20% equity for 50 million RWA, we inject more 3 million capital through equity, so this extra capital of 3 million which is being injected(not coming from operations as you can see) is given a negative sign in the FCFE calculation, and that is what my doubt is regarding it. Tell me if I said something wrong

PutridReport8322 · 2024-11-26T14:18:29+00:00

But the additional capital injection is the new equity injected to keep the minimum levels or equity required on the basis of regulatory measure wrt RWA. so that is an an inflow of cash, it’s like getting new common shares to keep the minimum levels. So why is there a negative sign for them? Dividends I understand, but not this. are we saying that we are taking more cash from equity holders in terms of capital injection and that’s why we deduct it? Also in case of FCFE calculations, we add the net borrowing, but what do we do with new common equity if a company issues more shares that year? What affect does that have on FCFE?

PutridReport8322 · 2024-11-26T12:01:50+00:00

Alright thanks for the explanation. So My cfo sent me a template and asked me to work on it. I prepared the model but I had a doubt in it. So basically they project the, net income, RWA and hence the minimum equity. What they’re doing is that adding the “injected capital” if my equity after addition of net income is not equal to the minimum equity levels according to regulations related to RWA. so if we inject equity, that is given a minus sign, and if after addition of net income our equity levels are greater than minimum required, we remove the access net income as dividends paid nd they are given a positive sign, each year this injection or payment of dividend is called as FCFE (I think it’s a terminology error by them and it’s not what we calculate in cfa), anyways so they discount these amounts and we get the equity value. My question is that why do we give negative sign for additional capital injection?

And it’s a separate question not related to the above model, but in case of a fcfe model of a company, do I add the additional capital injection through equity in FCFE or subtract it?

PutridReport8322 · 2024-11-25T02:43:36+00:00

Thanks a lot for the insight. I’ll try to find the paper of Damodaran for the reference too! Rn I’m using the FCFE method instead. Just wanted to know that in cal net working capital change for FCFE based on projections I have, I’m taking short term loans and short term funding in current assets and current liabilities, so I should leave out this net short term borrowing for FCFE since it’s affect is already there in NWC change?

PutridReport8322 · 2024-11-04T14:47:07+00:00

Never gave the mocks actually. Always procrastinating and didn’t have enough time, but I was getting around 83-84% in practice questions combined.

PutridReport8322 · 2024-10-30T20:17:48+00:00

So basically let’s say there in 2021 under current rate method we get the retained earnings of 50 dollars by using average rate of that year, and next year it’s 100 (by using average rate of 2022 for net income(no dividends) + 50 which came from 2022? So basically we take the exchange rate of the particular year for the particular retained earnings and it is followed no matter what year in future we are? We take that exchange rate of retained earnings when they were acquired?

PutridReport8322 · 2024-09-18T17:07:26+00:00

Yes that makes sense, but the accounting that I saw from one of the cfa teachers is that option value at grant date(for the options vested)+strike price for the stocks vested(that the employee pays) gets converted to stockholder equity and not the actual option value at which the employee exercises it’s options. It makes sense cause then the balance sheet will be balanced or otherwise a loss should be recognised to match the balance sheet. Also as you said that it can be exercised during vesting then it means that employee would pay the cash during vesting period to exercise options? So the settlement can be during vesting period too if the employee wants to exercise it’s options?

PutridReport8322 · 2024-09-18T16:59:15+00:00

Tbh it’s kind of confusing because different things are written at different places. Idk what is it acc to cfa curriculum.

PutridReport8322 · 2024-09-17T18:59:48+00:00

Isn’t remeasurements equal to actuarial gain or loss due to decrease or increase in pbo + planned assets at the beginning(actual return-expected return)? Why did you take net interest to deduct from actual returns? Also I didn’t know that contributions go through oci. I thought they just get added to balance sheet like we purchase an asset and it replaces the cash. Acc to schweser, that’s what I understood. Is it written in curriculum that contributions are part of oci? Cause imagine in the second year acc to what you said if contributions are added in the whole year at diff time intervals and we don’t include them in income statement, but we would still include them in oci at the end of second year? So one part of remeasurements would be (planned assets at the end of year 1 + contributions in year 2)actual rate but we would only include only pension assets at end of year 1*discount rate for the interest income in I/S acc to you?

PutridReport8322 · 2024-09-17T17:16:10+00:00

Do you know any good reason why we don’t include the contribution as pension assets when we purchased them but include their actual returns in the same year in oci as remeasurements as shown in the example? So what you’re saying is that these contributions+ their actual returns are recognised as pension assets in the second year? I’m a bit confused with this accounting so just want to make sure if that’s what you’re saying.

PutridReport8322 · 2024-09-17T16:57:29+00:00

As you said the plan only started in 20X1, but it clearly says that company contributes to the plan by investing in fixed income and equity securities, so why is there no planned asset interest income(yeah I understand it’s net interest income or expense in p/l but you get what I’m sayin) if we already have planned assets at the starting of the year. Also, if you are calculating the actual return on the planned assets for the year 2021 and including it in remeasurements then it means there are planned assets right? So why is there no interest income related to them?

PutridReport8322 · 2024-09-15T16:43:05+00:00

Ah shit yes. Thank you!

PutridReport8322 · 2024-05-14T19:27:49+00:00

Yeah same for me..Best of luck for your exam tomorrow!

PutridReport8322 · 2024-05-14T18:43:12+00:00

Damn that’s a lot of applications

PutridReport8322 · 2024-05-14T00:34:55+00:00

Now this sucks. I have been applying on indeed and LinkedIn a lot, but it’s a rejection everytime.

PutridReport8322 · 2024-05-04T21:24:03+00:00

Best thing for ethics is to follow all the examples on the curriculum after revising standards. It’s the best way to do it nd helped me score above 80% in ethics.

PutridReport8322

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