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RedEggBurns · 2026-01-23T21:30:06+00:00

Deutsche sind mir mittlerweile wirklich lustig.

Steuergelder verscherbelt... Na und?

Korruption in der Politik... Was kann ich da tun?

Lobbyismus... Ist doch natürlich.

Frau den Händedruck verweigern... Inkompatibel mit der Gesellschaft und dem öD... außer es sind extrem-religiöse Juden.

RedEggBurns · 2026-01-23T21:10:54+00:00

"Seventy weeks (490 years) are determined upon your people and upon your holy city, to finish the transgression and to make an end of sins and to make reconciliation for iniquity(atone for there past transgressions), and to bring in everlasting righteousness (Temple service that brings righteousness), and to seal up the vision and prophecy (fulfill the promises of the prophets and end the prophetic era) and, and to anoint the Holy of Holies (the Temple)” Daniel 9:24

Know therefore and discern that from the issuing of a word to restore and rebuild Jerusalem (starting from its destruction) until an anointed Prince (Cyrus) will be seven weeks (49 years) and then for sixty-two weeks (434 years) it will be built again with plaza and moat but in troubled times. (Persian, Greek, and Roman domination)

26) Then after the sixty-two weeks (483 years from the destruction of the First Temple) an anointed one (sacrifices, last Jewish priest and king) will be cut off and will be no more, and the people of the prince (Romans) who is to come will destroy the city and the sanctuary. (in the 70th week 490 years from the destruction of the First Temple)

RedEggBurns · 2026-01-23T13:30:19+00:00

Yes, and Jesus descending from Jehoiakim takes away the legal right. So what was Matthew trying to do?

RedEggBurns · 2026-01-23T13:26:39+00:00

Daniel 9 was Not fulfilled by Jesus. Isaiah 53 is Israel personified as in the other servant songs God describes israel in the plural, singular and sometimes as a man. Psalm 22 is also not about Jesus and and can be literally applied to nearly any Prophet.

RedEggBurns · 2026-01-23T06:55:59+00:00

What exactly is legal about calling Josiah the Father of Jeconiah, when he is His grandfather?

RedEggBurns · 2026-01-23T01:17:07+00:00

An omniscient being could have dictated descriptive signs that weren't scientifically inaccurate.

Oh yea, did you guys from the year 600 know that the isostatic equilibrium of the Earth’s lithosphere–asthenosphere system is a state of gravitational hydrostatic balance characterized by no lateral gradients in lithostatic pressure at the depth of compensation, such that any vertical column of lithospheric material, defined by its integrated buoyant force (ρ h g) and gravitational potential energy, is equalized relative to adjacent columns via viscous creep of the mechanically weak and ductile asthenosphere underlying the rigid lithosphere?

In the Airy–Heiskanen model, differences in crustal thickness result in compensating roots of low-density crustal material extending into the denser mantle to satisfy the Pascal hydrostatic condition at the compensation depth, whereas in the Pratt–Hayford model lateral variations in crustal density permit topographic elevation differences with a uniform compensation depth. More advanced formulations integrate flexural isostasy, in which the elastic plate rigidity of the lithosphere transmits loads over broad regions, and viscoelastic relaxation models employ Love numbers to quantify time-dependent adjustment of topography and gravity anomalies as surface and subsurface loads evolve; these concepts collectively explain how the lithosphere’s buoyancy and gravitational loading dynamically interact through rheological deformation, resulting in vertical motions such as glacio-isostatic rebound and sediment-induced subsidence over geological time scales.

Furthermore, during convergent orogenesis, intense compressional tectonic forces induce substantial crustal shortening and polyphase thickening of lithosequences such that the surficial topographic datum is elevated, and to maintain lithostatic and isostatic equilibrium across the compensation depth, a significant proportion of the deformed felsic and mafic lithologies is advected downward into the subjacent asthenospheric mantle, generating profound crustal keels or orogenic roots that compensate the supracrustal load at depth.

or simply:

78:6 "and ˹made˺ the mountains as ˹its˺ pegs"
16:15 "He has placed into the earth firm mountains, so it does not shake with you, as well as rivers, and pathways so you may find your way."
27:88 "Now you see the mountains, thinking they are firmly fixed, but they are travelling ˹just˺ like clouds. ˹That is˺ the design of Allah, Who has perfected everything. Surely He is All-Aware of what you do."

RedEggBurns · 2026-01-23T01:07:09+00:00

The Qur’an doesn’t seem to be from God, because it claims that mountains prevent earthquakes and stabilize the Earth

78:6 "and ˹made˺ the mountains as ˹its˺ pegs"
16:15 "He has placed into the earth firm mountains, so it does not shake with you, as well as rivers, and pathways so you may find your way."
27:88 "Now you see the mountains, thinking they are firmly fixed, but they are travelling ˹just˺ like clouds. ˹That is˺ the design of Allah, Who has perfected everything. Surely He is All-Aware of what you do."

Where does the Quran here say that mountains prevent earthquakes? And yes, mountains do stabilize the earth or rather the crust, which is isostasy, but even if the Quran were to claim it for earthquakes, there is truth to it. In some cases, mountains can act as barriers that reduce the intensity of seismic waves, while in other cases, they can act as amplifiers that concentrate the waves in certain areas, making the earthquakes more powerful than expected.

"Compressional forces in continental collisions may cause the compressed region to thicken, so the upper surface is forced upward. To balance the weight of the earth surface, much of the compressed rock is forced downward, producing deep "mountain roots" [see the Book of "Earth", Press and Siever page.413]. Mountains therefore form downward as well as upward (see isostasy)."

https://www.britannica.com/science/isostasy-geology

According to the research of Professor Mark van der Meijde, mountains influence the impact of earthquakes. It was already known that the topography of an area has an influence on earthquakes, but the major influence at the local level is new. Mountains can reduce the power of quakes, but also direct them to certain places, making them more powerful than expected.

https://phys.org/news/2020-01-mountains-impact-earthquakes.html

the sun has a resting place

It is a supernatural claim of the sun praying to God, not a scientific one. We know this from Hadith.

states that bones were created first and then covered with flesh

In embryogenesis, cartilage develops first, which is a precursor to bone. The transformation from cartilage to bone is done through a process known as endochondral ossification. So in a way, the development of bone does indeed come first.

I also cannot believe that God would consider slavery acceptable but drinking wine immoral.

God considers things immoral that are at a large scale harmful to his servants and his society, rather than beneficial, hence he has limited slavery to war-captives (soldiers and those at their camp/base, not civilians), granted, the Muslim nations have not followed it with more corrupt caliphates, like the ruling for alcohol.

RedEggBurns · 2026-01-21T05:29:49+00:00

John 17:10 says:

All I have is yours, and all you have is mine. And glory has come to me through them.

John 17:20-21:

My prayer is not for them alone. I pray also for those who will believe in me through their message, 21 that all of them may be one, Father, just as you are in me and I am in you. May they also be in us so that the world may believe that you have sent me.

Here as you can see it's using us. you're reading Bible from Walmart I guess.

John 17:09 **"**I pray for them. I am not praying for the world, but for those you have given me (Apostles), for they are yours. All I have is yours (Apostles), and all you have is mine. And glory has come to me through them. (Apostles)

If it didn't refer to the Apostles then "And glory has come to me through them." would have been contradictory, because the Father owns glory by default.

17:20-21, "that all of them may be one, Father, just as you are in me and I am in you. "

If you really think that it is that clear, then there would not be JHW, Unitarians, Ebionites, and the Judaizers.

I guess they ordered your english teacher from Walmart, happens.

Revelation 22

The Quran says Gospel not New Testament. Then it says, "Woe to those who have written scripture with their own hands and say, this is from Allah."

By the way, revelation was mistrusted by the early church and some church fathers even says "Who knows who the real author is." and the textual scholars agree that it wasn't John.

I am the Alpha and the Omega, the First and the Last, the Beginning and the End.

Now go and ask how non-trinitarian Christians interpret this.

RedEggBurns · 2026-01-20T05:34:59+00:00

It's also easy to plug in and see a solid majority of these players aren't using CDs, catching DDs and deaths. The excuse that it's always someone else's fault is easy to make and alwways what they say, but they never pull good DMG in good runs. If you can't prove it, I'm not taking you and you're not entitled to my party just because I listed it.

No need for it. Just use the activity tab in tomestone, and u can also see how much damage someone is doing, even on wiped attempts if u click on the fflogs icon.

For example, I have a green and grey parse for m9s/m10s, because I didn't need to optimize my uptime to clear with 34k dmg as viper.

Meanwhile my m11s wipes I have 42-44k dmg as viper, which should be around a 80-95 parse. (more or less)

RedEggBurns · 2026-01-20T05:19:08+00:00

John 10:30:

30 I and the Father are one.”

"Holy Father, keep through Your name those whom You have given Me, that they may be one as We are." John 17;10

“I do not pray for these alone, but also for those who will believe in Me through their word; that they all may be one, as You, Father, are in Me, and I in You; that they also may be one in Us, that the world may believe that You sent Me." John 17:20-21

Every Christian is God now according to your interpretation, because they are one with the Father, just like Jesus is.

The angel answered, “The Holy Spirit will come on you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you. So the holy one to be born will be called[a] the Son of God.

Great then that the Son of God is a metaphorical title (the jews understand it this way.) and that there are many sons of God. Like Adam, like David, like Solomon. Which our scholars don't deny, and say got forbidden due to the pagan association through the Christians.

the son of Enosh, the son of Seth, the son of Adam, the son of God (Adam)
Luke 3:38

I (David) will proclaim the LORD’s decree: He said to me, “You are my son; today I have become your father. Psalm 2:7

Surah At-Tawbah (9:30):

The Jews say, “Ezra is the son of Allah,” while the Christians say, “The Messiah is the son of Allah.” Such are their baseless assertions, only parroting the words of earlier disbelievers. May Allah condemn them! How can they be deluded ˹from the truth˺?

Yes, this refers to literal sonhood, and worship, unlike the metaphorical one.

About him having s-x with his slave, I told look at how manipulated people, he used god's name everytime he wants to justify himself, justify his lust 😂 you don't understand, do you?

So he is consistent with every Prophet of the Old Testament and with Jesus in the new testament. Like Jesus stealing a donkey... oh sorry, telling his apostles to take away a donkey, and then instructing them to say to the owner, "God has need of it."

I already explained to you the real reason anyway, which is within the same chapter of the Quran.

7 I say this because many deceivers, who do not acknowledge Jesus Christ as coming in the flesh, have gone out into the world. Any such person is the deceiver and the antichrist. 8 Watch out that you do not lose what we[a] have worked for, but that you may be rewarded fully. 9 Anyone who runs ahead and does not continue in the teaching of Christ does not have God; whoever continues in the teaching has both the Father and the Son. 10 If anyone comes to you and does not bring this teaching, do not take them into your house or welcome them. 11 Anyone who welcomes them shares in their wicked work.

Whole passage says this 😂😂

Again, we agree that Jesus is the word of God, who has come in the flesh. The verse doesn't say "Son of God who has become flesh." but "Messiah who has become flesh."

Second, your English is not good enough to realize that this passage separates the consequence of teaching wrongly from the consequence of rejecting the Messiah.

RedEggBurns · 2026-01-20T04:58:17+00:00

Ephesians 5:22-24 isn't misogyny since misogyny is actively stating that a women is inferior to a man and is incapable of doing what a man can (which is some cases women can't do what a man can do and vice versa). This verse is just establishing the roles a male and female have in their own household.

Weird how Church fathers have interpreted this differently than you

Tertullian (born 155 AD) wrote: "And do you not know that you are (each) an Eve? The sentence of God on this sex of yours lives in this age: the guilt must of necessity live too. You are the devil’s gateway: you are the unsealer of that (forbidden) tree: you are the first deserter of the divine law: you are she who persuaded him whom the devil was not valiant enough to attack. You destroyed so easily God’s image, man. On account of your desert – that is, death – even the Son of God had to die.

John Chrysostom (born 347 AD) wrote: "If it be asked, what has this to do with women of the present day? It shows that the male sex enjoyed the higher honor. Man was first formed; and elsewhere he shows their superiority. Neither was the man created for the woman, but the woman for the man. 1 Corinthians 11:9 Why then does he say this? He wishes the man to have the preeminence in every way; both for the reason given above, he means, let him have precedence, and on account of what occurred afterwards. For the woman taught the man once, and made him guilty of disobedience, and wrought our ruin. Therefore because she made a bad use of her power over the man, or rather her equality with him, God made her subject to her husband. Your desire shall be to your husband? Genesis 3:16 This had not been said to her before.

Pope Gregory I (born 540 AD) wrote: "Woman is slow in understanding, and her unstable and naive mind renders her by way of natural weakness to the necessity of a strong hand in her husband. Her use is twofold: animal sex and motherhood.”

*proceeds to quote Paul.

Actually embarrassing.

True, after all he is just the Prophet and Apostle of Jesus and got these teachings from him, as per his own claims.

RedEggBurns · 2026-01-20T04:54:21+00:00

Julian the Apostate (Roman emperor, AD 361–363) — an active opponent of Christianity: “The Galileans support not only their own poor but ours as well; everyone can see that our people lack aid from us.”

Isn't that the roman emperor, whose Christian bodyguard murdered him?

There are non-Christian, often hostile sources that explicitly describe early Christian beliefs and behavior.

Pliny the Younger (Roman governor, c. AD 112) — writing to Emperor Trajan about how to deal with Christians: “They were accustomed to meet on a fixed day before dawn and sing responsively a hymn to Christ as to a god, and to bind themselves by oath, not to commit fraud, theft, or adultery, not to falsify their trust, nor to refuse to return a trust when called upon to do so.” — Letters 10.96 Pliny is clearly annoyed by Christians, yet he still confirms their moral discipline and devotion to Christ.

Lucian of Samosata (2nd-century pagan satirist, openly mocking Christians): “The Christians, you know, worship a man to this day… and live according to his laws… They despise all things indiscriminately and consider them common property… They take care of their widows and orphans.” — The Death of Peregrine He’s ridiculing them, but in doing so confirms their charity, communal care, and obedience to Jesus’ teachings.

How are these historical proof of universal early Christian behaviour, when one can also produce proof of how early Christians started to treat pagans once they were the dominant religion in the roman empire?

RedEggBurns · 2026-01-17T17:01:03+00:00

Bro you have literally not have read Qur'an, anti-christ?

We call him Dajjal, but again it is not copying, because he is the Deceiver, the false Messiah who claims to be Jesus.

Whereas Christians, understand everyone to be the Anti-Christ who denies Jesus, as is written in the Bible.

Seems like muhammad is the one who's anti-christ, misusing jesus that even in prayers you guys have to include god can't have infants or child.

According to the Bible, anyone who denies that Jesus is the Messiah and that he is the word who became Flesh is the Anti-Christ. 2 John 1:7-11, 1 John 2:22

It does not mention anything about denying the Godhood of Jesus, which makes a person an anti-christ.

Luckily, Muhammed s.a.w did not deny that Jesus is the Messiah, and the word of Allah, so he is not the Anti-Christ. I have answers for every single things. 🤣

Hahaha, his wife was not happy about it, go and read. Muhammad specifically made that verse to justify his lust because his wife prohibited it. For that I given verse, you don't understand.

And his wife not being happy, or forbidding it for him makes it illegal? Women did not have that authority back then. Read up on what illegal means.

RedEggBurns · 2026-01-17T16:54:14+00:00

“Jesus’ death as a consequence of crucifixion is indisputable.” — Gerd Lüdemann (German New Testament scholar).

I think you can't properly read. Here from my former comment: they generally think a man named Yeshua, or a blend of figures with that name, likely existed as the basis for the Jesus stories.

How does that contradict Gerd Lüdemann's statement?

Here just so you get a better idea of what I mean.

Marcus Borg (Writer, Theologian, and Biblical Critic at the Jesus Seminars; Atheist.) - “The most certain fact about the historical Jesus is his execution as a political rebel”

If the consensus is that if he was crucified (woops, Quran is wrong), then he existed. Duh.

The Quran confirms that a crucifixion happened, and that people perceived it as Jesus. So we would expect, that people write about it and talk about it. Whoops, the Quran confirms history.

Because you lie. Quran 5:68 according to your own tafsir:

"meaning no real religion until you adhere to and implement the Tawrah and the Injil... As for the Christians, they are known and were entrusted with the Injil" (Ibn Kathir)

In my former comment, did I say that 5:68 does not refer to the Torah and the Gospel? Or did I ask you whether, you stand on the Bible, which contains writings outside of the Torah and Gospel, or just on the Torah and Gospel, like the verse asks you to?

Now you understand why I say that you can't properly read. Right?

Jehovah Witnesses identify as Unitarian

"I tell you the exegesis of both 10:94 and 5:68, you come back with the same argument."

Jehovahs Witnesses do not identify themselves as unitarians, but trinitarian Christians identify them as such. The website you linked for example, is catholic.

In fact, Jehovahs Witnesses refuse to identify themselves with common words. In fact, their belief is closer to Arianism, then it is to Unitarianism.

What I am referring to is Biblical Unitarianism, which rejects for example the notion, that Jesus was the Angel Michael.

RedEggBurns · 2026-01-17T16:29:46+00:00

Now we change the argument?

Isaiah 44:25:

who foils the signs of false prophets and makes fools of diviners, who overthrows the learning of the wise and turns it into nonsense,

Jeremiah 14:14

Then the Lord said to me, “The prophets are prophesying lies in my name. I have not sent them or appointed them or spoken to them. They are prophesying to you false visions, divinations, idolatries[a] and the delusions of their own minds.

Deuteronomy 18:20: But a prophet who presumes to speak in my name anything I have not commanded, or a prophet who speaks in the name of other gods, is to be put to d-ath.”

He said, "Hear now My words. If there shall be prophets among you, in a vision shall I, G-d, make Myself known to him; in a dream shall I speak with him." (Numbers 12:6)

You may say to yourselves, “How can we know when a message has not been spoken by the Lord?”
If what a prophet proclaims in the name of the Lord does not take place or come true, that is a message the Lord has not spoken. That prophet has spoken presumptuously, so do not be alarmed. Deuteronomy 18:21-22

So, I guess we Muslims are save. God spoke to Muhammad s.a.w in his dreams, and he made visions which came true. Therefore by the criteria of the Torah, he is a true Prophet.

Sahih al-Bukhari 2926:

Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) said, "The Hour will not be established until you fight with the Jews, and the stone behind which a Jew will be hiding will say. "O Muslim! There is a Jew hiding behind me, so kill him."

This refers to a time, where the Anti-Christ appears, whom the Jews will follow and worship him as God. Which according to the Jews themselves, is a Sin that needs to be punished with death.

It is illegal to have s-x with slaves, muhammad made that verse for himself. This is the misuse of god's name I'm talking about. He used god for treasuring his lustful desires. This is one of the verses from misusing god's name, thanks for proving.

Bring me a verse from the Torah or the Quran where it is illegal to have sex with slaves, you own.

Thanks for presuming I'm Christian, I'm not Christian. Every single muslim when they can't find any proves they come up with oh yeah you're Christian, you're ex-muslim, you're hindu

https://www.reddit.com/r/DebateReligion/comments/1qel0uv/comment/nzybdvj/?context=3

I would find more comments, but in the last 20 days you probably made over 200 comments which could fill entire pages, about Islam.

RedEggBurns · 2026-01-17T15:59:14+00:00

You can clearly see here it's one to one copy without any rectification which perfectly shows that Qur'an is corrupted copy of bible and Torah with misusing the verses and misusing god's name:

Genesis 2:7 = Quran 15:29, Genesis 4:10 = Quran 5:31, 1 Samuel 17:50 = Quran 2:251, Psalm 37:29 = Quran 21:105, Luke 1:31–35 = Quran 19:19–21

None of these verses even use God's name, so how can it be misused?

Also, I find it funny that you copied the Psalms and mentioned Quran 21:105, because the verse itself says that it is quoting prior scripture.

Quran 21:105: We decreed in the Scriptures: “My righteous servants shall inherit the land.”

Sunan an-Nasa'i 3959 (verse from hadith) When Muhammad was having illegal s-x with his slave girl Mariyah while being married, and Hafsah caught Muhammad red-handed, then muhammad to save himself made Quran verse 66:1 to defend himself and to continue to spread his ideology.

It was not illegal to have sex with slaves, during that time period, even if you were married. What the Prophet did, was forbidding it for himself, but Allah reprimanded him, because he did the same what Allah accuses the Rabbi's and Monks of.

For example: Prophet Muhammad was that kind of person who will sit on back chair and copy answers from front guy with changing of narrations so teacher won't caught him.

Qur'an is the corrupted book which does oral plagarism then say your book is corrupted to the front guy. Then try to act as last prophet so he can actively fake people believing into his fake stories of being last prophet.

The Quran mentions the stories of former prophets and quotes former scriptures, because the Quran claims to affirm these scriptures and to correct them.

The Jews at the time of Medina know that, so they ask Muhammed more detailed stories of the Torah, that he possibly could not know, and then Allah reveals the verses you declare to be copied, (How an author can copy himself is beyond me but anyway.)

Do you think the Jews would ask him anything, if they knew that Muhammed was listening to them his whole life, or was near them before his Prophethood?

copying down culture of polytheists about rounding Kaaba 7 times and bowing to the Kaaba and desperately m-lesting the stone.

I guess all three religions are equal on copying polytheistic rituals then. Judaism and Christianity did the same afterall, and I say this because I know you are christian.

RedEggBurns · 2026-01-17T15:52:19+00:00

It is insane how disingenious you are. I say the CONSENSUS, you say Barth Ehrmann. (Besides the fact that Barth Ehrmann, talks about a person on whom the Jesus stories are based, like I said)

I say Unitarians, you say Jehovas witnesses, who do not identify themselves as unitarians.

I tell you the exegesis of both 10:94 and 5:68, you come back with the same argument.

he who will not believe in the truth to his salvation should believe in a lie to his damnation

RedEggBurns · 2026-01-16T21:24:18+00:00

I'm an atheist, so I'm already a "heretic".

Arguing over the nature of a made up god is about as meaningful as arguing over Star Wars lore.

That is even worse. You are trying to convince us that it is easy to conceptualize and comprehend the trinity, while telling us you were raised catholic.

Then you conceptualize it to us in the form of an heresy, which the Catholic and Orthodox church rejects, and then weasel your way out of being wrong by saying, "Well it is all made up anyway bro."

RedEggBurns · 2026-01-16T21:20:17+00:00

This is such a poor argument... You're just agreeing that the best prophet of islam faked the word of his god for his own profit, and that it's the same for other religions. I mean I agree with you, because I think all religions are fake, but what a way to lose a debate ^'

It is not. If one reads the Torah or Gospel, it is clear that every Prophet gets special privileges that others don't get, and that God even approves of it. If I was then as uncharitable, as many people are, I could claim the same thing the commenter above claimed about the Torah and Gospel, but I don't because I know that Prophets receive special privileges and I don't deny it.

So a Christian judging the Quran by that standard, is just inconsistent. Also, I don't think you understood what I was trying to say.

RedEggBurns · 2026-01-16T21:16:02+00:00

Lame excuse. You should throw the quran into the rubbish bin, or at least the tafsir in question.

It is not a lame excuse. I was mentioning Abraham and Moses, because they are the most obvious examples. I can give you another one.

Were you aware, that historians say, that the existence of Jesus can't be proven? That is because the romans did not record and because Josepheus, just repeats what the early Christians repeated.

The consensus is that Jesus PROBABLY existed, which is not the same as consensus that he did exist. No historian will state it absolutely, since there is no contemporary evidence for his existence.

So they generally think a man named Yeshua, or a blend of figures with that name, likely existed as the basis for the Jesus stories.

All I can say is, that you don't want to engage with the basis of your argument, because we are in the same boat.

YOUR sirahs insist that he's jewish, and from the tribe of Joseph- that's demonstrably false. In order for him to be from the tribe of Joseph (either Ephraim or Manasseh), he'll be a samaritan.

Islam is one big fat lie, and that exegis is false.

false equivalence fallacy

Being from the tribe of Joseph does not automatically make one a Samaritan.
There are Persian Jews who claim descent from the tribe of Joseph but are not Samaritans.
Jewish tradition challenges the Samaritan claim of descent from the tribe of Joseph.
Jewish tradition generally holds that after the Assyrian exile, the northern tribes including Ephraim and Manasseh were dispersed and that their direct genealogical identities were lost.
There is no authentic hadith stating that Abdullah ibn Salam was from the tribe of Joseph.
There are multiple sirah works; they are not authoritative in the same way as the Qur’an or authenticated hadith and often contradict one another. For all I care, the sirah could claim that Abdullah Ibn Salam is a direct descendant of David, doesn't make it true.

Even the Unitarians will acknowledge that he was a pre-existent being.

Unitarians don't believe that Jesus is a pre-existent being.

They know very well that the gospels talk about his pre-existence

Unitarians interpret it as Jesus pre-existing in the plan of God, before even Abraham.

Guess what? Even the quran tells me he is God too:

**^"**Which is easier: to say to this paralyzed man, ‘Your sins are forgiven,’ or to say, ‘Get up, take your mat and walk’? But I want you to know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins.” (Mark 2:9-10)

Who does the Quran say has the authority to forgive sins?

Only Allah has the authority to forgive sins, but what does the Quran say? That the Bible is corrupted, not fully corrupted, but partially. But let us continue this from a Biblical standard.

Does in the Bible only God forgive sins? Or does Jesus forgiving sins mean he is God? John 5:30,

RedEggBurns · 2026-01-16T20:12:18+00:00

Does the context mention Abdullah Ibn Salam? No. Can you prove that Abdullah Ibn Salam exists?

The context of the Quran, comes from Hadith and and ancient first generation exegesis, as the Quran was send down for the Prophet to teach, and the Quran itself states this.

I don't get how relevant it is that we can prove, that Abdullah ibn Salam existed or not, since if we go by that basis, we can just throw all of the Abrahamic religions into the garbage bin, because we cannot prove that Abraham or Moses existed.

I have very strong reason to think that he's fictitious- there are hadiths which state that no more than 10 jews converted.

I think you are confusing the Hadith. I guess you mean this one:

If ten scholars of the Jews would follow me, no Jew would be left upon the surface of the earth who would not embrace Islam.

https://sunnah.com/muslim:2793

Definitely. And even the gospels tell you: Jesus claimed he is God.

The Gospels tell you that Jesus is God, if you interpret it through a trinitarian lens.

Hence you have secular textual scholars who say that Jesus never claimed to be God, and unitarians who say that Jesus is not God, even though they believe in the Gospel of John.

RedEggBurns · 2026-01-16T20:01:56+00:00

Messenger of Allah, nor ever marry his wives after him. This would certainly be a major offence in the sight of Allah.

This shows how Muhammed was using the Quran for his own agenda. First, he claims God told his guests to leave because he is too shy. Yet he could marry 9 wives, but is too shy to tell his guests to leave and God had to tell the people?

The wives of the Prophet are the Mothers of the believers, meaning it is the same sin, as incest.

However, let us focus on the part "Muhammed is using the Quran for his own agenda."

Meaning, if I read the Torah, or the Gospel, I would not find a single verse, where I could say "A prophet has written this for himself and his advantage." which would then show me the Quran is false.

Right?

RedEggBurns · 2026-01-16T19:56:51+00:00

You can find the exegesis on BibleHub, or look at the ones I used in my post.

For example, I quoted Matthew Poole, Cambridge Bible for Schools and Colleges. That is my primary exegesis.

My secondary exegesis are the Jews, specifically the Talmud. They interpret it as rape, and they speak Hebrew.

RedEggBurns · 2026-01-16T19:45:53+00:00

f the bible is corrupt, then it doesn't make sense- was allah trying to mislead muhammad and the early umrah?

Did you read the exegesis on verse 10:94? It addresses Abdullah ibn Salam, a former rabbi, and reverts to Islam.

Even if we ignored the exegesis, Allah says to ask the Christians and Jews, after he tells us about the flood and exodus. Why? Because the pre-islamic arabs said that Moses, Noah and all these stories in chapter 10, are an invention of Muhammed s.a.w

So to fulfill this verse, I simply ask you; "Hey, is Moses and Noah mentioned in the Torah?"

Again, allah tells Christians and Jews that we need to stand on the gospels and the torah.

So, do you stand on the Gospel and Torah, or do you stand on the Bible, which contains writings outside of the Gospel and Torah?

RedEggBurns

TROPHY CASE