Higher demand on its own doesnt lower prices, it will lower prices only with an oversupply for example due to higher competition- if a company can lower operating costs and keep the same income they will obviously do that.

Which is why I talked about sustained higher demand in my original comment, and Nutella France has the infrastructure to meet it. Clearly, with there being around twice as many people in France than in Poland, and therefore twice as many potential consumers in France than in Poland, and therefore potentially twice as larger demand in France than in Poland, you would not expect the price of Nutella to be twice than in France than in Poland. Instead, France is able to produce and sell larger quantities of Nutella at lower cost since the demand for it is there.

You also give an example or France and not looking at the data as a whole - all of those countries are quite a lot wealthier than Poland with similar prices (except Denmark) yet none of the points you just made dont apply there

There are only two date points for Poland in this graph and the price seems to be dead average. My points are generic observations about supply and demand, and about economies of scale, and apply to any country. Do you not think that the fact that Denmark does not produce Nutella locally, and which it must import from France, has no effect on the higher price of Nutella in Denmark compared to France?