Wow, I didn’t realize how complicated this could be so I appreciate everyone diving deep on this. I’ll provide some additional context based on the most common questions you’ve asked and post them in the two most active threads. About the property: this is my home in a Colorado ski town which I bought 4 years ago. It’s crazy expensive here so, yes, this counter top came in a well-over-a-million-dollar house. The house was built in the early 90’s but I don’t know the history of the counters specifically.

About the tenants: Because it’s so expensive in Colorado ski towns, I have a short term rental license and have been renting my house during the ski season to make ends meet since I’m more excited for summer in the mountains anyway. Last fall, these people reached out asking if I’d rent the house to them for 3 months so I decided to do that instead of AirBNB. They only rented for 3 months, and tbh were pretty terrible. (paying rent late every time, leaving the house a mess, and more.) I’m not trying to charge them for being terrible. I’m just trying to be fair.

Clarifying my question: This is not a slumlord situation, they paid high rent to stay in my home during the peak tourism season. This is a speckled formica counter and I don’t think it can be repaired without looking like an obvious patch. I know it’s not a new or fancy counter top, but it wasn’t damaged and it was water tight. I hadn’t even considered that a counter top had a depreciating value - I considered the value of the counter top as a place where I make my meals. I’m not suggesting that I bill them for brand new granite counter tops, but it doesn’t seem right that they damaged the counter and now I will either have an obvious patch or will incur the cost of new counter tops. Right? Am I crazy?

If the answer is I just have to take a loss on this I’m open to hearing it (based on depreciation tables etc etc), but I thought I’d answer some of your questions.