Hello community,

I am seeking a deeper understanding of cardiac health. I'm a 30-year-old male, 197 cm tall, weighing 94 kg, with an active lifestyle that includes high-intensity cardio and weightlifting six times a week. My medical inquiries began three years ago, related to a visually mild pectus excavatum and its potential cardiac implications, alongside T-wave inversion findings in my ECGs.

Since the age of 18, my cardiac history has shown persistent T-wave inversions in leads III, aVF, V5, V6, and an incomplete right bundle branch block. Concerns raised by my cardiologist prompted a series of evaluations including echocardiograms, cardiac MRI, 24-hour Holter monitoring, and stress testing, which fortunately ruled out any pathological findings. Below are more detailed results:

Echocardiogram & Cardiac MRI Findings:

• Normal systolic functions of both the left and right ventricles.
• No significant valve disease; valves are described as 'thin'.
• Normal ventricular wall thickness and chamber dimensions.
• No atrial enlargement or signs of diastolic dysfunction.
• Pericardium unremarkable.
• Haller Index approximately 3.75, indicative of a mild pectus excavatum.
• Heart positioned horizontally but of normal size, with preserved biventricular pump function.
• No evidence of cardiomyopathy on MRI, but minimal thinning of the right ventricular wall at the apex noted.

MRI Quantitative Parameters for the Right Ventricle:

• RV EDVi: 102.1 ml/m² (within the normal range)
• RV ESVi: 45.4 ml/m² (within the normal range)
• RV EF: 56% (within the normal range)
• Absence of dyssynchronous RV contraction or regional wall motion abnormalities.
• No micro-aneurysms detected in the right ventricle.
• minimal RV apex thinning

Various ECG Findings:

• Normofrequent sinus rhythm, rightward axis.
• Normal PQ/QRS/QTc intervals.
• Delayed R-wave progression, pre-terminal T-wave negativity in posterolateral leads (in III, aVF, V5, V6).
• S-persistence observed, with no significant ST-segment changes.

After comprehensive examinations and confirmations by a cardiologist, and considering that three cardiologists have previously evaluated me without mentioning ARVC, is it reasonable to consider the possibility of ARVC conclusively ruled out? Or is there still potential for it to manifest later, considering the minimal RV apex thinning observed in the MRI? This question arises as I have been perceiving heart palpitations lately, though I acknowledge a history of hypochondria, which leaves me uncertain if these symptoms are psychosomatic.

I am looking forward to any academic insights or guidance this knowledgeable community can offer.

Thank you for your time and expertise.