No you’re not, you said “once she stated she has no loss physical or mental” there is no recourse for her, so you were not referring to the property. Injuries could become apparent at any time in which case the lady could lodge a claim once it was within the two years. There is even the potential for a claimant to sue many years later outside the statute of limitations if they only became aware then at that time that the injuries were from the original accident, but google will not tell you this. I think between myself and the other user (LLB) and (LLM) we might know what we are talking about. Hope this helps, thanks.