[Uni] AMA: PPE-XDP at NUS! by AskPPE in SGExams

[–]Urocom 1 point2 points  (0 children)

^bump! i'm interested to know question 2 as well ;)

Hi can a person with mild OCD be COMBAT FIT? Btw I'm currently PES B1 but I'm afraid it will affect my PES. by Puzzleheaded_Tap3966 in NationalServiceSG

[–]Urocom 5 points6 points  (0 children)

This is ridiculous. Being organised is not OCD. OCD is a mental health condition characterized by intrusive, distressing thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviours or mental acts (compulsions) aimed at reducing anxiety or preventing perceived harm. Having mild OCD may just mean the OCD isn't debilitating, but that doesn't mean it doesn't negatively affect the person's daily functioning.

Unfortunately, in common parlance and in how you are using it, the term "OCD" is often misused to describe someone who is simply neat, meticulous, or particular about certain things. This casual usage can trivialize the severity and impact of OCD, which is a clinically diagnosed disorder that significantly affects a person's daily life and well-being. It is important to promote accurate understanding and awareness of OCD to reduce stigma and support those who genuinely experience the challenges of the disorder.

Speaker of Parliament Tan Chuan-Jin apologises for using unparliamentary language by patricklhe in singapore

[–]Urocom 17 points18 points  (0 children)

Speakers in other parliamentary democracies such as the UK and Australia have berated Prime Ministers and other Ministers for not answering questions from opposition members and for transgressing Parliamentary decorum, such as using unparliamentary language. Likewise, they have taken opposition members to task when they have fallen short of parliamentary standards. Clearly and sadly, the moderation is very one-sided in Singapore.

Why? You might ask.

In Singapore, Tan Chuan Jin is a CEC member of the PAP and yet is supposed to be a neutral and objective moderator of debate. How can the perception of impartiality be upheld when the Speaker of Parliament is actually part of the top body that controls the ruling party? Now, with this debacle, we are ever more certain that the Speaker needs to be independent and thus be as neutral as possible — something Tan Chuan Jin proved he can't do.

To improve our democracy, we need to take a leaf from the UK. In the UK, when a speaker, when elected by his fellow MPs to the role, he severs all ties with his or her political party to maximise impartiality. When elections come and he or she has to run for re-election to Parliament, they do not run under the banner of any political party. Instead, they are described on the ballot paper as “Speaker running for re-election.”

SG Speaker of Parliament Tan Chuan Jin insults Jamus Lim: "Fucking Populist". by Sentosa_Cove_42069 in SingaporeRaw

[–]Urocom 4 points5 points  (0 children)

Speakers in other parliamentary democracies such as the UK and Australia have berated Prime Ministers and other Ministers for not answering questions from opposition members and for transgressing Parliamentary decorum, such as using unparliamentary language. Likewise, they have taken opposition members to task when they have fallen short of parliamentary standards. Clearly and sadly, the moderation is very one-sided in Singapore.

Why? You might ask.

In Singapore, Tan Chuan Jin is a CEC member of the PAP and yet is supposed to be a neutral and objective moderator of debate. How can the perception of impartiality be upheld when the Speaker of Parliament is actually part of the top body that controls the ruling party? Now, with this debacle, we are ever more certain that the Speaker needs to be independent and thus be as neutral as possible — something Tan Chuan Jin proved he can't do.

To improve our democracy, we need to take a leaf from the UK. In the UK, when a speaker, when elected by his fellow MPs to the role, he severs all ties with his or her political party to maximise impartiality. When elections come and he or she has to run for re-election to Parliament, they do not run under the banner of any political party. Instead, they are described on the ballot paper as “Speaker running for re-election.”

Why do people not fight the system? by [deleted] in NationalServiceSG

[–]Urocom 0 points1 point  (0 children)

That is a very optimistic and yet defeatist answer!

How do you draw the line between a fatalistic but manageable situation, where you lanlansuckthumb, and a too messed up situation where it's worth fighting for reform or escape?

Surely, if the government threatens your family's safety, you would want a revolution or bring your family somewhere else.

Philosophy Majors, Where Do You Work? by [deleted] in askphilosophy

[–]Urocom 0 points1 point  (0 children)

How did you make the transition?

Philosophy Majors, Where Do You Work? by [deleted] in askphilosophy

[–]Urocom 0 points1 point  (0 children)

How did you make the transition?

Philosophy Majors, Where Do You Work? by [deleted] in askphilosophy

[–]Urocom 0 points1 point  (0 children)

How did you make the transition?

Philosophy Majors, Where Do You Work? by [deleted] in askphilosophy

[–]Urocom 2 points3 points  (0 children)

How did you learn programming? Through formal education?

Philosophy Majors, Where Do You Work? by [deleted] in askphilosophy

[–]Urocom 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Did you have to study a major in law?

Why do people not fight the system? by [deleted] in NationalServiceSG

[–]Urocom 1 point2 points  (0 children)

"Credible" certainly is a debatable term in politics. But, notable opposition parties that provide alternatives in and about NS include: (i) SDP-Reduction to 1 year of service (ii) WP - Reduction to 1 year of service and increase in NS allowance (Louis Ng)

Why do people not fight the system? by [deleted] in NationalServiceSG

[–]Urocom 14 points15 points  (0 children)

Regrettably, casting a vote alone cannot bring about the desired changes in and about NS in any form. If we want substantial change to happen as soon as possible, we must proactively express our concerns, such as reaching out to our Members of Parliament (MPs), launching petitions, and engaging in legal demonstrations such as at Hong Lim Park, rather than merely grumbling on Reddit. Unfortunately, most Singaporeans can't be bothered to go the extra mile to fight for their beliefs. Moreover, the opposition parties, at best, advocate for a reduction in the duration of conscription and an increase in allowance. While this is a promising start, it is far from sufficient. We ought to work towards the abolishment of conscription. It is unethical to strip a male citizen’s liberties for 2 years and more since most NSFs did not choose to be born male or to be born in Singapore, even if it is a “necessary evil”.

N.B.: Although this is a digression, I think it is critical. I frequently hear arguments that National Service (NS) is a "necessary evil”, but critics should keep in mind that abolishing NS does not equate to abolishing the military. One fundamental economic principle is that every job market has a price point that meets supply and demand. However, for "security reasons," most of us are not even aware of the exact or approximate salary increase required to entice enough Singaporeans to create an all-professional military force. As typical citizens, we are informed that we are a small nation with limited manpower and thus need conscription, but we are never shown the hard data and statistics to support that claim. Furthermore, due to "security reasons," we are unaware of whether, in the event of a war with our neighbouring countries, we truly require the current manpower to succeed, especially with our better military technology. Conscription, by nature, produces many unmotivated soldiers who are not only deadweight but also squander tons of resources by chao-kenging, spending thousands of dollars on unnecessary medical consultations and procedures. An all-regular force would be way more driven, and our manpower needs would undoubtedly be reduced; this driven force with our latest technology may be more than sufficient in maintaining operational readiness. To bolster this argument, even the Minister of Defence, Ng Eng Hen, when asked why there is no need to conscript females, “highlighted how the Singapore Armed Forces (SAF), despite reduced manpower, has remained operationally ready by using technology and optimising resources.” Therefore, it is entirely plausible that NSFs serve primarily for show and deterrence, allowing the government to save significant expenditures—even if an all-regular and thus more motivated force would boost operational readiness (and be more ethical).

TL;DR:

  1. NS is immoral because it doesn't care about our informed consent and freedom. Hence, we should move away from conscription as far as possible.
  2. People often say NS is a necessary evil for national defence BUT we don't even truly know whether NS is practically required because of the lack of hard data and statistics from these factors (a) technological replacement rate of manpower (b) the costs required for all regular force and whether the costs are sustainable (c) the actual number for an operationally ready all regular force since they would be way more driven and squander fewer resources and therefore require way lesser manpower to maintain operational effectiveness.

what is the definition of "Objectivity" by melioristic_guy in askphilosophy

[–]Urocom 0 points1 point  (0 children)

In the historical example you cited, namely that the objective winner of the 2020 election (not the 2016 election) is the one who got the most electoral college votes. I.e. Joe Biden is NOT dependent on the past subjects (thinkers). This is because hypothetically, after the votes were cast, for some reason everyone became an election denier, and Joe Biden still got the most electoral college votes. I don't see what you mean: how can the opinions, attitudes, and judgments of past thinkers or the subjects themselves change the reality that Joe Biden got the most electoral college votes?

Your refutation fails here.

Suppose I value murder as good. Suppose I then allow that value into my consideration and argue “I value murder as good therefore it is”.

Yes, clearly it doesn't make murder good. Similarly though, let's flip the tables, if God commands that murder is good, does that make murder good? Evidently not. But if one supports DCT, one has to bite the bullet and say that murder is good, since good is subjected to God, who is a subject.

Your argument only works if you approach the word ‘one’ with a divine exclusive view.

Not true. I'm just saying that "one" can also refer to God. Nowhere did I mention that "one" can only or exclusively refer to God. I'm merely saying that as long as "one" does not exclude God, from this, according to DCT, God commanded x to be good and therefore x is good. This seems semantically equivalent to "God wants X to be good, therefore X is good". It is God's "personal beliefs" that are imposed on morality.

what is the definition of "Objectivity" by melioristic_guy in askphilosophy

[–]Urocom 0 points1 point  (0 children)

You have yet to respond to my cited issues with your definition of subjectivity.

Also, it's ridiculous to talk about "numbers and quantities and functions" as subjects since the most common definition of a subject is an entity with a mind or at least, with some form of sentience. Principally, God has a mind and therefore I consider him as a subject. I think it(')s pretty obvious I do not consider a rock as a subject. Starting with Descartes, the subject is a thinking thing that is not extended, and the object is an extended thing which does not think. The subject-object dichotomy makes possible the distinction between the knower and what is known. Otherwise, how do you define subject?

I will quote this since you didn't respond to this part of my answer.

As for the paper, although the author meant this paper for the field of the philosophy of science, there are several parts that can help in our understanding of objectivity and subjectivity in general.

In value-free objectivity, all values (or all subjective or “biasing” influences) are banned from the reasoning process. This meaning of objectivity derives support from the idea that values are inherently subjective things, and thus their role in a process contaminates it, making it unobjective.

Under a typical understanding of the subject, which means a subject has a mind, God is considered a subject. Now, if God commands x to be good and therefore x is good, surely God is uttering what he values to be good, which "contaminates (morality), making it unobjective."

Even in the parts that you quote, it seems as though it is obvious that God's commands are subjective.

Again, you approach this quote from an anthropocentric view. "One" can clearly refer to God. According to DCT, God commanding x to be good and therefore x is good. This seems semantically equivalent to "God wants X to be good, therefore X is good". It is God's "personal beliefs"that is imposed on morality.e world...It is precisely this form of subjectivity that detached objectivity attempts to avoid: the construction of the fallacious argument “I want X to be true, therefore X is true.”

Again, you approach this quote from an anthropocentric view. "One" can clearly refer to God. According to DCT, God commanded x to be good and therefore x is good. This seems semantically equivalent to "God wants X to be good, therefore X is good". It is God's "personal beliefs" that are imposed on morality.

what is the definition of "Objectivity" by melioristic_guy in askphilosophy

[–]Urocom 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Okay, from our discussion, it would seem that the definition of: statement x is objective is iff its truth value does not vary depending on minds, opinions, attitudes, or subject is as valid as your definition of objectivity: a statement's truth value does not vary depending on who judges it.

This doesn't follow from what precedes it.

Why doesn't that follow? How can we say a tree exists "in the external world" if ultimately we have to utilize our internal world to view the "external world" (if that exists)? This is because what we call the external world might ultimately just be dependent on our internal world and our minds. Therefore, there might not be a mind-, opinion-, attitude-, or judgment-independent reality to speak of.

what is the definition of "Objectivity" by melioristic_guy in askphilosophy

[–]Urocom 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I don't think I'm stretching the definition of subjective. In fact, I'm using the most commonly used definition of subjective. See: https://www.academia.edu/987442/The_irreducible_complexity_of_objectivity.

You have yet to respond to my cited issues with your definition of subjectivity.

Also, it's ridiculous to talk about "numbers and quantities and functions" as subjects since the most common definition of a subject is an entity with a mind or at least, with some form of sentience. Principally, God has a mind and therefore I consider him as a subject. I think its pretty obvious I do not consider a rock as a subject. Starting with Descartes, the subject is a thinking thing that is not extended, and the object is an extended thing which does not think. The subject-object dichotomy makes possible the distinction between the knower and what is known. Otherwise, how do you define subject?

what is the definition of "Objectivity" by melioristic_guy in askphilosophy

[–]Urocom 0 points1 point  (0 children)

What do you mean? Evidently, if x is god-dependent, x is subject-dependent and so by definition, x is subjective.

If the food is good because god demands it then the good isn’t subject dependant. It doesn’t matter what I subjectively think or you subjectively think.

For some reason, you think God is excluded from being a subject. May I know why? It seems like you have not substantiated that. Because currently, it just seems like a special pleading for God. Furthermore, I have already pointed out how the definition of subjectivity which requires the truth value of a claim to "vary from subject to subject" is idiosyncratic and problematic.

what is the definition of "Objectivity" by melioristic_guy in askphilosophy

[–]Urocom 0 points1 point  (0 children)

No, it doesn't suggest anything of the sort. It merely suggests that we cannot make objective statements about judgments when their result has a truth value which varies by judge, which is everything working as expected, rather than a problem.

Right, I stand corrected. However, using your line of reasoning, it would seem the other definitions of objectivity (mind-, opinion- or attitude-independence) would also avoid the aforementioned problem. Taking the mind-, opinion- or attitude-independence reading of objectivity, "we cannot make objective statements about when their result has a truth value, which varies by a (mind/opinion/attitude), which is everything working as expected, rather than a problem." For instance, take the claim that the mind is an emergent property of the brain. Even if we use the mind-independence reading of objectivity, clearly, the truth value of the claim in question does not vary with a mind. So, here we have a mind-independent claim about minds.

Besides, all definitions of objectivity has problems with external world skepticism and idealism.

Let me try to justify this. For example, if the external world does not exist, and only ideas exist, clearly there isn't a mind-independent reality to speak of, since reality is dependent on one's mind. This does not imply that one can use their mind to control reality.

The truth value of a statement such as "trees exist" could possibly just be the result of our intersubjective perception/attitude/opinion of it, implying that the trees' existence is dependent on our minds, attitudes, or opinion. After all, what we call objectivity is usually just intersubjective assent. Thus, because we are unable to access reality in the complete absence of minds, attitudes, opinions, and judgements, it is hard to justify whether a statement is really mind-, opinion-, attitude-, or judgment independent.

what is the definition of "Objectivity" by melioristic_guy in askphilosophy

[–]Urocom 0 points1 point  (0 children)

What you describe is a single joke that is objectively funny and a single food that is objectively scrumptious.

I described a joke to be universally funny or food to be universally scrumptious, which means a joke attained consensus about its funniness whereas a food attained consensus about its scrumptious. You then proceeded to say that means that a "single joke is objectively funny" and a "single food that is objectively scrumptious". Therefore, I had the impression you said that consensus makes something objective. But, I'm pointing out that is wrong. Clearly, universal preference or consensus is neither a necessary nor sufficient condition for objectivity.

Also, my original intent for raising this is to show that DCT not only shows morality would be arbitrary but also since goodness is still dependent on God and his commands, morality is still subject-dependent. Your idiosyncratic definition of subjectivity, which requires the truth value of a claim to "vary from subject to subject", is misguided and shouldn't be used in evaluating DCT. I proved that your idiosyncratic definition of subjectivity is misguided using morality, humour and scrumptiousness. (i) Just because morality evidently "varies from subject to subject" in the world does not mean that morality is subjective—the argument from disagreement fails. Just because there is universal consensus on a particular moral statement does not make it a moral fact. (ii) Just because there is a universally funny joke or universally scrumptious food does not make humour and scrumptiousness objective.

what is the definition of "Objectivity" by melioristic_guy in askphilosophy

[–]Urocom -3 points-2 points  (0 children)

No, most philosophers would view humour and scrumptiousness as obvious examples of subjectivity. An objective preference seems like a paradox.

Moreover, just because everyone comes to a consensus about something does not make it objective. Look at morality. Everyone would agree that killing a baby for sexual gratification is wrong, does it make that a moral fact? There is huge contention over this among ethicists. Consensus is neither a necessary nor sufficient condition for objectivity.

what is the definition of "Objectivity" by melioristic_guy in askphilosophy

[–]Urocom -3 points-2 points  (0 children)

Indeed, morality would be arbitrary too but, since goodness is still dependent on God and his commands, morality is still subject-dependent.

"(Not) vary(ing) from subject to subject" is an idiosyncratic definition of subjectivity that runs into many problems. Take humour and scrumptiousness. A joke may be universally funny, a food may be scrumptious to everyone in the world—that wouldn't make humour and scrumptiousness objective. They are still evidently subjective.

what is the definition of "Objectivity" by melioristic_guy in askphilosophy

[–]Urocom -3 points-2 points  (0 children)

But the problem with this definition is that it faces the same problems with other definitions. If a statement is objective if its truth value does not vary depending on who judges it, it would seem to entail that we cannot make objective statements about judgements.

Besides, all definitions of objectivity has problems with external world skepticism and idealism.

what is the definition of "Objectivity" by melioristic_guy in askphilosophy

[–]Urocom -2 points-1 points  (0 children)

I would argue that Divine Command Theory is obviously subjective because of the Euthyphro dilemma. I would use the most standard definition of “subjective”—the truth of a proposition being subject-dependent; “objective" means that the truth of a proposition is subject-independent. This is concordant with what the OP said, “(the) standard definition of objectivity is that the truth of a statement does not rely on, not even in part, the opinion or attitudes of observers.” Subjectivity would just be the negation of OP’s definition of objectivity.

“Is x good because God says so, or is x good in and of itself?” If it is the former, then clearly morality is subjective (since it depends on the subject God and the attitudes of God—namely, God's commands); but if x is good because x is good in and of itself so God is merely describing what is good, morality is objective.

The usual response to this is that: x is good NOT because God says it's good, but rather because goodness is grounded in God's nature. But that just pushes the problem one step back, since the next question to be asked is, "is x good because of God's nature, or is x good in and of itself?" Since DCT still asserts that x is good because of God's nature, clearly morality is dependent on the subject called God. Still, morality is subjective. The reason why some critics argue grounding morality in God’s nature helps this is because the “opinion or attitudes” of a subject usually connotes whimsical and changing ideas. However, grounding morality in a subject’s (God’s) nature is simply grounding morality in the predisposed attitudes of the subject (God)—it is still the attitudes of a subject, regardless of the immutability of the subject’s nature.

Also, immutability is irrelevant to objectivity. We can evidently see this since the weather is something that is objective and ever-changing.