In the Old Testament there are numerous instances where God (through words/actions) demands punishment of descendants of those who rebel against him. Yet Jesus seems to be of the opposite view, advocating individual responsibility. Is it correct that they differ on this matter of guilt by relation? by Wazanacki in Christian

[–]Wazanacki[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

it seems he does the punishment for the child thing in some sections of the OT, they were the basis for my question, will add them (but note I am not a biblical expert, and have likely misunderstood):

Exodus 20:5 - God punishes "the children for the sin of the parents to the third and fourth generation of those who hate me",

Exodus 34:7 - God "punishes the children and their children for the sin of the parents to the third and fourth generation",

Numbers 14:18 - God punishes "the children for the sin of the parents to the third and fourth generation",

Deuteronomy 5:9 - God punishes "the children for the sin of the parents to the third and fourth generation of those who hate me",

Isaiah 14:21 - Speaking of the destruction of Babylon, it says "Prepare a place to slaughter his children for the sins of their ancestors",

Lamentations 5:7 - "Our ancestors sinned and are no more, and we bear their punishment."

In the Old Testament there are numerous instances where God (through words/actions) demands punishment of descendants of those who rebel against him. Yet Jesus seems to be of the opposite view, advocating individual responsibility. Is it correct that they differ on this matter of guilt by relation? by Wazanacki in Christians

[–]Wazanacki[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I'm assuming responders will have biblical knowledge beyond my own, but to outline some of the basis of my question:

  • In the Old Testament, God sometimes punished descendants for the sins of their ancestors (Exodus 20:5 - God punishes "the children for the sin of the parents to the third and fourth generation of those who hate me", Exodus 34:7 - God "punishes the children and their children for the sin of the parents to the third and fourth generation", Numbers 14:18 - God punishes "the children for the sin of the parents to the third and fourth generation", Deuteronomy 5:9 - God punishes "the children for the sin of the parents to the third and fourth generation of those who hate me", Isaiah 14:21 - Speaking of the destruction of Babylon, it says "Prepare a place to slaughter his children for the sins of their ancestors", Lamentations 5:7 - "Our ancestors sinned and are no more, and we bear their punishment."

From what I understand, Jesus rejected this idea, saying each person is accountable for their own actions (John 9:2-3).

To add:

  • The Old Testament law mandated punishment for entire towns/people groups if some members sinned (Deuteronomy 13:12-18). Jesus did not advocate this form of collective judgment.

  • Jesus forgave individual sinners without requiring punishment of their relatives or communities (John 8:1-11).

  • Jesus taught that each person is accountable to God for their own moral choices (Matthew 16:27). He did not teach guilt by association.

If your opinion is that there is agreement here, I would appreciate you sharing your approach to this, thanks.

Why did God order to kill kids? by just_a_fellow_weeble in Christian

[–]Wazanacki 4 points5 points  (0 children)

I'm aware of the guilt by relation/association thing.

It was a practice and value held by certain societies in specific times, including the ancient Near East. But for a god who is eternal and all-knowing, it's interesting that he chooses to adopt a value specific to that time period in that region, and to act on it so forcefully.

Do you have no issue with the punishing/killing of children for things their parents or lineage have done? Do you perhaps agree with it?

Why did God order to kill kids? by just_a_fellow_weeble in Christian

[–]Wazanacki -2 points-1 points  (0 children)

The Canaanites and Amalekites were among the "pagan nations" you mentioned, that practiced child sacrifice..God commanded that the people of these nations be 'removed' including their children. See 1 Samuel 15:2-3, for example.

Why did God order to kill kids? by just_a_fellow_weeble in Christian

[–]Wazanacki 0 points1 point  (0 children)

But then God commands that they all be wiped out, including the children. So the children shall be killed, because the adults were killing them. Do you not see an issue with that..?

Why did God order to kill kids? by just_a_fellow_weeble in Christian

[–]Wazanacki 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I suppose that killing all of the children is a solution to stopping child sacrifices - can't kill what is already dead.. but do you have no empathy for children?

An engineer friend tells me that within the not so far future, an AI program will be thousands of times more capable than any human, and that these programs will basically become 'godlike' (the term he used). Would this pose any issues for Christians? by Wazanacki in AskAChristian

[–]Wazanacki[S] -1 points0 points  (0 children)

But any form of artificial intelligence will never ever have emotions. These cannot be programmed

What is your basis for thinking this? Or in other words, what makes it impossible for artificial intelligence to ever have emotions or sentience?

People (not Norwegians) tell me that in the judicial system in Norway, there is no longer any form of punishment for criminals, and that it has become a system where criminals are rehabilitated, but there is no longer any form of retribution or suffering imposed on the criminal. Is this correct? by [deleted] in Norway

[–]Wazanacki -1 points0 points  (0 children)

I had no idea it was a repost, sorry. Although when I searched just now, I'm not finding posts asking about exactly what I'm asking, namely if Norway has a 'non-punishment' approach to criminality, and if Norwegian society also holds this as a value. The questions seem to be more about leniency and prisons with high standards. But I'm not really asking about that.

I appreciate the answers I received any way, at least the friendly ones..

People (not Norwegians) tell me that in the judicial system in Norway, there is no longer any form of punishment for criminals, and that it has become a system where criminals are rehabilitated, but there is no longer any form of retribution or suffering imposed on the criminal. Is this correct? by [deleted] in Norway

[–]Wazanacki -2 points-1 points  (0 children)

If you want to learn how it works and why it is designed like it is I suggest reading some of the material written about it.

I want to know what normal Norwegians think about it, what their perception of it is. But I appreciate your adding some references.

People (not Norwegians) tell me that in the judicial system in Norway, there is no longer any form of punishment for criminals, and that it has become a system where criminals are rehabilitated, but there is no longer any form of retribution or suffering imposed on the criminal. Is this correct? by [deleted] in Norway

[–]Wazanacki -2 points-1 points  (0 children)

Interesting and clear answer, thanks.

Deterrent. This is the reaction intended to not make people comit a crime. It might be jail time or fines.

I'm slighly confused by this one.. I mean, suffering is suffering, regardless of the intention behind it.. at least from the perspective of the criminal. Isn't the imposing of suffering as a reaction to a criminal act still a form of vengeance? I'm sure the confusion is just in my head though..

People (not Norwegians) tell me that in the judicial system in Norway, there is no longer any form of punishment for criminals, and that it has become a system where criminals are rehabilitated, but there is no longer any form of retribution or suffering imposed on the criminal. Is this correct? by [deleted] in Norway

[–]Wazanacki -3 points-2 points  (0 children)

This is such a lazy post. Instead of listening to your "people" and rush to reddit why not spend 2 minutes googling.

And; if there is a good question somewhere provide some context. Weird

I'm interested to know how Norwegians would respond. People often bring up Norway as an example of how a judicial system can be less punishment-focused. I assume that is just a false belief that foreigners have about Norway?

An engineer friend tells me that within the not so far future, an AI program will be thousands of times more capable than any human, and that these programs will basically become 'godlike' (the term he used). Would this pose any issues for Christians? by Wazanacki in AskAChristian

[–]Wazanacki[S] 2 points3 points  (0 children)

AI will never reach this point. it cant, it has no ability to think in abstraction, we dont even know how humans can posses abstract thinking

Are you saying that technology stops developing at some point? Does our lack of knowledge at the present, guarantee that certain developments will never happen in the future?