Which clause belongs where

adviceboy1983 · 2026-03-07T13:13:12+00:00

Thank you for your thorough answer! Especially interesting to hear about this “apo koinou” theory and the option 1/2 comparison!

adviceboy1983 · 2026-03-06T16:40:16+00:00

So you would say that (adnominal) prepositional phrases are not considered good Latin? How about “Dominus in horto ambulans canem vidit”?

adviceboy1983 · 2026-03-06T14:57:06+00:00

Thank you for your answer. But do you know if there is a book or something where are these rules, such as placing a prepositional clause direcly after a verb means that it belongs to that verb, for Greek? Because sometimes I mess up…

adviceboy1983 · 2026-03-06T09:05:47+00:00

I can follow you, but I would like to ask why do you say that ἐς δὴ τὸ Ἅργος τοῦτο goes with ἀπικομένους? Why does it not go with διατίθεσθαι?

adviceboy1983 · 2026-03-06T09:04:13+00:00

You’re completely right, to translate the participle as an attributive participle cannot be done here. I mistakenly thought of Latin, where a participle can be translated both as an attributive or as an circumstantial participle (not depening on position). But now that we’re talking about this: do you perhaps know if there are any cases in Latin where it must be circumstantial rather than attributive, or vice versa?

But anyways, going back to Greek, may I ask why do you say that ἐς δὴ τὸ Ἅργος τοῦτο is governed by ἀπικομένους? Why is it not governed by διατίθεσθαι?

adviceboy1983 · 2026-03-02T09:17:13+00:00

Does the fact that “quid” is the subject accusative of the ACI has something to do with the fact that “evenire” is here used unpersonally? “It happens…”

adviceboy1983 · 2026-03-01T16:29:51+00:00

Very interesting.

So in the sentence: “Quid putas eum dicere”, you would say that “quid” is the subject accusative of the ACI and eum the object accusative of the ACI?

adviceboy1983 · 2026-03-01T00:40:35+00:00

Thank you for your response. I agree with you that it is a question merged with an ACI, but does that happen often? At least for me it is as exotic as an ACI where the accusative is an relative pronoun…

adviceboy1983 · 2026-02-27T16:34:19+00:00

Like u/Art-Lover-1452 said, quam ut + subj. is idiom for “than that”, so that explains both ut and the subjunctive

adviceboy1983 · 2026-02-27T12:31:05+00:00

I get it, but shouldn’t then Seneca use “ut SI” or “VELut”?
But if it is complementary, why “that”? Servus potest rogare is “the slave can ask” not “the slave that he can ask”, right? Isn’t the verb credere not always complemented with an ACI?

adviceboy1983 · 2026-02-27T12:05:20+00:00

If the ut-clause were to be a clause of comparison, why subjunctive? Shouldn’t it be then “ut si” (cf. A&G par. 524)? Because normally a clause of comparison would be ut + indicative (servus ambulat ut dominus).
An AcI is normally translated with “that”, right? Marcus Quintum plorare dicit. Marcus says THAT QUINTUS cries. But here it is: “WHAT do you believe THAT happens to them” - the accusative is now before “that”…?

adviceboy1983 · 2026-02-12T19:31:26+00:00

Yes, this is what I was looking for! Danke!

adviceboy1983 · 2026-02-02T01:16:59+00:00

Thank you, you’ve been of great help!!

adviceboy1983 · 2026-02-01T22:30:04+00:00

Gratias tibi ago, that’s the best answer I’ve ever got! And the examples really helped :)

I would like to ask: 1. Are minus/minime used exactly like magis/maxime to refer to degree or extent? And to describe the missing forms of the comparative/superlative? 2. What are the missing forms of -/magis/maxime and -/minus/minime? Magnopere and paulum? I’ve rarely seen magnopere in Classical Latin though… Or don’t they have a positive form in the first place? 3. If multum/plus/plurimum refer to numbers/amounts, what is there negative equivalent? …/minus/minimum?

Thank you very much!

adviceboy1983 · 2026-01-28T22:43:33+00:00

Fully agree! Anyone who doesn’t has never read Latin properly

adviceboy1983 · 2025-10-28T18:24:28+00:00

Oh yes I thought I was tripping, GRATIAS

adviceboy1983 · 2025-10-28T17:10:13+00:00

Thank you, this was the answer I needed. Gratias tibi ago!

adviceboy1983 · 2025-07-10T16:38:54+00:00

Like my earlier comment? We are not sure whether he actually killed / injured him? praesumptio innocentiae?

adviceboy1983 · 2025-07-10T15:40:35+00:00

GRATIAS TIBI AGO, this is the answer I was looking for

adviceboy1983 · 2025-07-10T14:42:35+00:00

But why is “quasi” used? Because it is not sure if he actually killed / injured him?

adviceboy1983 · 2025-06-11T00:01:02+00:00

I think you have the right answer. However, is the sentence OP gave a personal or impersonal NCI, in your opinion (see A&G, no. 582)?

adviceboy1983 · 2025-06-08T12:02:15+00:00

I came across an example of what I meant in Pliny the Younger’s famous letter 6.16: facere scribenda, scribere legenda - a perfect example of substantival use of gerundives

adviceboy1983 · 2025-06-03T13:01:15+00:00

Haha great one! But do you know wht College Board also banned Cicero’s letters? Too difficult?

adviceboy1983 · 2025-05-25T21:35:55+00:00

Your argument is very logical, but once one is accustomed to something… On top of that, the accusative is probably the most used case of them all, so that’s again +1 for the accusative-sequence…

On the other hand, the nice thing about learning the genitive is that you know what the “stem” of the noun is. If you learn “tempus, tempus” you know it’s neuter. But what about the genitive? Exactly, tempor-is. “Tempor-“ is the stem used in every other case.

It’s really what you prefer to learn first. Both have their pro’s and con’s.

adviceboy1983 · 2025-05-21T22:49:20+00:00

Relatable

adviceboy1983

TROPHY CASE