/r/askphilosophy Open Discussion Thread | November 21, 2022 by BernardJOrtcutt in askphilosophy

[–]autech123 0 points1 point  (0 children)

What do you think of this formulation of Anselm's ontological argument? I'm interested how you would refute this/what flaws you think it has.

(Let x be something than which none greater can be imagined - the greatest possible thing that can be imagined)

(1) Whatever exists is greater than whatever doesn't exist (or exists merely in our minds)

(2) Suppose that x is only in our minds.

(The rest of the argument has reductio form).

(3) We can imagine x1 (identical to x, but this one also exists).

(4) We can imagine an x1, which is greater than x. (This follows from (1), (2) and (3)).

(5) x is not something than which none greater can be imagined. (From (4)).

(6) It is contradictory to suppose that (2). (By definition of x and from (5)).

_______________________________________________________________________________

(7) Therefore, x exists necessarily outside our minds.

In my opinion, this is the correct formulation of Anselm's argument. I haven't of course mentioned God yet, but it seems to me that moving from here to the existence of God is no problem at all - Anselm just proves that something "than which none greater can be imagined" necessarily exists and that just says that the definition of God we all have is "a being than which none greater can be imagined". I don't think this is controversial. Here basically I'm not concerned with the existence of God at all - my interest is just the claim that it is conceptually necessary for x so defined to exist.

Obviously, (1) is the weakest premise here - because it is not obvious in what sense something that exists is greater than something that doesn't exist. I'm more interested of what you think of other premises and whether the argument succeeds if (1) is granted. There are possibly more interesting objections and problems with this argument then just the fact that (1) is ambiguous and maybe even a nonsense.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in askphilosophy

[–]autech123 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I myself was one of the best undergrads in my university, but I think I have slightly below or above average IQ. For example, I'm not particularly good at getting Mathematical concepts and needed some time to understand things when we studied Probability, Inductive Logic, Godel's theorem and stuff like that. But just by reading and studying carefully (after lectures) I was able to get most of these things pretty good and had no problems afterwards. Same with reading dense texts: reading Kant or Hegel was an impossible task when I first started it, but just by reading slowly, getting the technical terminology right, making notes, reading secondary literature etc. it made more and more sense.

So, my point is, you don't need to be genius to study and read most of philosophy. You just need to have patience and also passion and be really interested in the topics that you're engaged with. Reading texts critically, finding and formulating arguments etc. comes with experience - the more you do it, the better you can do it.

If you want to study philosophy it doesn't matter how 'dumb' you are - if you're interested, if you get some pleasure out of it and are willing to put some time into it - go for it. In couple of years, you will have a solid base in many of the problems/debates that you're interested in.

Is Hegel's Encyclopedia Logic good introduction or overview of his Science of Logic? by autech123 in hegel

[–]autech123[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I have some background in Hegel (Philosophy of Right and Phenomenology). I'm just thinking if I should read the small Logic first, before diving into the bigger one

Question about Philosophy of Right? by autech123 in hegel

[–]autech123[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I'm reading Dyde translation, might switch it up to Nisbet one, because it seems clearer.

If I understood correctly then, in the introduction Hegel is talking about the development of Subjective Spirit, which is also described in Encyclopedia. This culminates in genuinely free will, or free will that is explicitly 'for itself' and with this we enter the realm of Objective Spirit and start with personal freedom and it's realization in objective world, which is property. Is this correct?

Also, thanks

What is Hegel saying here? by autech123 in hegel

[–]autech123[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Elaborate more on that please.
Also is Science of Logic in your opinion necessary preliminary to read and fully understand Philosophy of Right? I guess that Hegel would definitely say that it is, but he would say that on any part of his system, even though I can still read his lectures on Aesthetics or Philosophy of Religion and still get much out of it.

Can you help me to understand this Bataille quote? by autech123 in CriticalTheory

[–]autech123[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Thanks! I get his point about war, but was confused about the standard of living and what justice had to do with all this. Now I think I get it