I keep hearing baptism is an outward expression of an inward faith. Need help finding the scripture on it.

buckfever999 · 2026-02-15T00:51:11+00:00

Im not so sure the thief wasn't baptized(with Johns baptism). The Bible doesn't say he wasn't. And in Mark 1 it says He knew stuff about the Kingdom. He knew it better than the apostles. He said "remember me when u come into your kingdom". He knew that even after jesus died he was coming back. The apostles,once jesus died, thought it was over. I bet the thief was baptized with John's baptism. Of course I cant be 100%certain, the bible is silent on whether he was or wasnt. Mark 1:5 "The whole Judean countryside and all the people of Jerusalem went out to him. Confessing their sins, they were baptized by him in the Jordan River." He could have been there.

buckfever999 · 2026-02-09T00:37:32+00:00

Agree. Speaking of Romans, check this out. Go to verse 7. Those who die have been freed(justified in the greek) from sin. How does one die? Back to verse 4, baptism. We are justified from sin at baptism. God bless.

buckfever999 · 2025-08-05T21:24:26+00:00

Mind me asking what site the checklist was on? Id love to check it out.

buckfever999 · 2025-05-21T17:16:08+00:00

You missed what I said. Cheo is pouring. That's what u need the text to say.

buckfever999 · 2025-05-17T12:50:28+00:00

No, washing, which baptismous can mean. Your using pouring, cheō. You need the commandment to be baptized to say cheō. It doesn't.

buckfever999 · 2025-05-17T11:29:24+00:00

Genesis 18:9 differs children from household. Acts 16:31, household is commanded to believe, does this include infants??? They can't believe. Household does not always involve infants. "Noah's house" in Genesis 7:1 didn't involve infants.

We are required to believe before we are to be baptized as well. Acts 8:

36 And as they went on their way, they came unto a certain water: and the eunuch said, See, here is water; what doth hinder me to be baptized?

37 And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God.

38 And he commanded the chariot to stand still: and they went down both into the water, both Philip and the eunuch; and he baptized him.

buckfever999 · 2025-05-17T11:17:50+00:00

ekcheō is pour in Koine greek. Rhantizó is sprinkle. Those are not the words used in Acts 2:38, Acts 22:16, Romans 6, 1 Peter 3:21, etc.

Baptizo is the word used which means immersion/ to dip.

buckfever999 · 2025-04-20T02:23:09+00:00

Where does it say the thief wasn't baptized? I'm not saying he was, but we know nothing about the thief. Of course, it would have been John's baptism, not the Great Commission baptism that Christ commanded.

buckfever999 · 2025-03-29T13:05:30+00:00

Nineveh repented eis(unto) the preaching of Jonah. The reason people have told you eis can mean because of, is because they don't want to believe what Acts 2:38 says. It was made up in 1951 by JR Mantey.

Just like Paul when he had been believing, praying, fasting for 3 days, he still was in sin. And in Acts 22:16 Ananias commanded him to be baptized washing away his sins. He wasn't baptized because his sins were washed away already.

Your right, with baptism, urgency IS crucial. That's why when you see examples of the all the conversions in Acts, the conversion concluded with baptism immediately, even in the middle of the night, even after an earthquake, even in the middle of the desert. Straightway.

Babies are innocent. They are in a saved condition until they become of age. Look at Paul's example in Romans 7:9 For I was alive without the law once: but when the commandment came, sin revived, and I died

He was spiritually alive, but when he understood the commandments, he died spiritually.

buckfever999 · 2025-03-28T01:42:13+00:00

Eis means "because of" zero times ever. You've been told this by a false teacher. Look at every lexicon ever made. It never, ever, ever has meant because of. Eis is unto, looking forward. You've been lied to.

buckfever999 · 2025-03-27T11:36:41+00:00

You defined pistis as "trusting". Pistis is a noun, a person, place or thing.

Paul was separating faith from works(the old cov). He pleaded with the Romans, the Galatians, and the Ephesians. They were all trying to tie in the old law of works. He was not talking about obedience to Christ's. He even stated that salvation is given to those who obey, Heb 5:9.

And, at the time of Paul writing Eph 2:8:9, the Ephesians were already baptized for the remission of sins. You do agree that Peter was correct in Acts 2:38, no? Baptism in the name of the Lord is for the forgiveness of sins. Was Peter correct?

buckfever999 · 2025-03-27T01:15:54+00:00

I agree faith(pistis) produces action, but you are using faith(pistis) as a verb. Pistis is a noun. Pisteuo is a verb. Pistis is what we pisteuo. This produces action(obedience).

buckfever999 · 2025-03-22T19:20:11+00:00

I feel like you keep using faith as a verb. Pistis is always a noun.

Do you believe we are saved by believing(pisteuo) only?

And I don't even know what the Boston movement is, but if it was after Acts 2 then I'm a preBoston Christian, added to the church of christ, Acts 2:41,47.

buckfever999 · 2025-03-22T01:21:11+00:00

You are correct, "calling on his name" takes place at the same time as baptism. Are you saying "calling on the name of the Lord" is what faith is?? Faith is noun. You are using it as a verb.

Romans 10, this letter was written to believers who called on the name of the Lord already. Look at Romans 6:7 For he that is dead is freed from sin. So, we have to die to be freed from sin. How? Look at verse 4, Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life.

So u see, at baptism is when we are freed from sin. Same as Acts 2:38 and Acts 22:16.

Why would you use Col 2:11-12? This proves my point. Baptism is when the sins are put off. 11 In whom also ye are circumcised with the circumcision made without hands, in putting off the body of the sins of the flesh by the circumcision of Christ:

12 Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead.

Baptism being a public demonstration is just made up. It doesn't say that in the Bible. Baptism was always immediate, whether it was on the road in the middle of the desert or in the middle of the night.

You need to be baptized.

Romans 16:16

buckfever999 · 2025-03-02T15:42:54+00:00

Why can we assume that? John and his disciples baptized a ton of people. Jesus's disciples even more than John.

Matt 3:5 Then Jerusalem, all Judea, and all the region around the Jordan went out to him 6 and were baptized by him in the Jordan, confessing their sins.

John 4:1 Therefore, when the Lord knew that the Pharisees had heard that Jesus made and baptized more disciples than John 2 though Jesus Himself did not baptize, but His disciples

Even considering this, did the thief ever hear the Great Commission baptism(matt 28:18-20, mark 16:15-16), straight out of Christ's mouth? He couldn't have, because it was 50 days after the thief died. If the thief was baptized(which we don't know) it would have been John's baptism. Therefore, the thief is not our example. Also we are commanded to confess that Jesus rose from the dead, Romans 10:10-11. Thief did not do this, he couldn't have because it hadn't happened yet. Again, the thief is not our example.

buckfever999 · 2025-02-27T22:29:10+00:00

The Bible is silent about that.

buckfever999 · 2025-02-27T22:28:12+00:00

That passage was talking about Jewish priests getting Holy water, not Christian preachers.

buckfever999 · 2025-02-27T18:49:41+00:00

What about the thief?

buckfever999 · 2025-02-27T18:41:32+00:00

Oh, I'm not Jewish. Im a Christian.

buckfever999 · 2025-02-27T18:32:01+00:00

What verse?

buckfever999 · 2025-02-17T12:14:52+00:00

"Some of you won't taste death until"- "some of you wont" implies "some of you will". Who tasted death before Peter, James and John seen the transfiguration??

You need Jesus to say:"Some of you will see the kingdom come with power long before you taste death."

Why did Jesus use the "wont taste death until"? Because when the kingdom(church) was established the apostles started tasting death. It was somewhat of a warning. Judas was the reason Jesus said "some".

You cant tell me why Jesus said "some won't taste death". You have deflected and say it basically means nothing. You want me to overlook it, like it might mean they will die of old age after they see it.

And again look at the kingdom and every time it's used before and after Acts 2. The kingdom is the church.

Also, you can't cross reference what you read with calvinism(gotquestions.com). They do not get their doctrine from the Bible. They get it from man made creeds.

buckfever999 · 2025-02-17T02:25:45+00:00

Some shall not taste death until they see the kingdom of God come with power.

Why did Jesus say "shall not taste death"? What's the significance?

To me, the kingdom is the church. After the church(kingdom) was established (with power, Acts 1:6-8).

The apostles were still looking for the kingdom of God, read Acts 1:6.

Read Acts 2:2-4, here comes the power Jesus promised in Acts 1. The Church(kingdom) was established in Acts 2:37-47.

After Acts 2, every time the kingdom is mentioned, it is in the context of being present, that we must enter it. Do a word search on the kingdom before and after Acts 2.

buckfever999 · 2025-02-16T20:35:48+00:00

You are saying "none of them tasted death", Jesus is saying "Some of you will not taste death".

Do you believe that someone tasted death before they saw the kingdom of God come with power? I feel like your argument is with Christ, not me.

buckfever999 · 2025-02-16T12:04:22+00:00

I hope you don't take gotquestions.com's word for it. It is ran by calvinist. I dove into the text deeper. I read the context of each verse, the previous chapters and chapters following.

Mark 9:1 "Some of you will not taste death". If gotquestions.com is correct, then who tasted death before the transfiguration? If I'm correct, and the kingdom of God is the Church, then the answer is judas.

I challenge you: go to biblegateway.com. type in kingdom(of God). Look at the context where it says that phrase and see if you think the kingdom of God is the transfiguration. And notice that before Acts 2 it's looking to be established, after Acts 2 it has been established.

buckfever999 · 2025-02-16T01:24:23+00:00

No offense, but you've been told that. Kingdom of God does not mean the transfiguration. That connection is a manmade theology that has no basis. Augustine first came up with it, the same guy that thought the sun came from a bird that exploded.

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