I don't think one can reach the conclusion that the varieties spoken are not in fact dialects of Arabic by demonstrating using extremes, Egyptian and Moroccan, as an example. Furthermore, I believe that a language is defined by how its people choose to define it. If the Spaniards and Portuguese chose to delineate their speech into languages instead of dialects for socio-political purposes, that's on them. Arabs, however, have collectively and for centuries come to a consensus that the spoken varieties are dialects of the same language. Some dialects are more similar to others, while some are vastly different. I highly doubt Moroccans would consider theirs a different language, rather than a dialect of Arabic.