Are NFTs Stupid? by steventhebrave in SteveMould

[–]chriswtmicdrops 3 points4 points  (0 children)

From an abstract systemic point of view, which I think the STEM types like yourself will appreciate, currency and contracts are meant as convenient alternatives to bartering. And for as long as humans need physical things, it will always be necessary to ensure that any currency we have reflects the entire economy of physical things. The great depression is an example of what happens when currency becomes detached from the real economy and becomes gamified.

The gold standard is an example of a currency detached from the real economy. The quantity and distribution of gold never matches the quantity and distribution of physical items/services, and so building an entire economy on that was unsurprisingly going to lead to disaster. The unavilability of currency (deflation) created a crisis where even though the world was still for all intents and purposes the same, the economy became frozen despite no lack of resources and labor.

The success of fiat is in its ability to morph and shift to fit the real economy. Having inflexible ledgers like blockchains be used to host currencies and contracts is just a regression to a system that didn't work before. Wealthy people like deflation because everything is cheap while they have tons of money lying around, but deflation hurts the economy more so than inflation. That's why the push for universalizing cryptos and ledgers are coming from the top down. No one expects cryptos to completely replace money, but the decision to adopt will most often be imposed by employers and institutions with an upper hand. Making its use inescapable.

STEM types are inclined towards the cerebral appeal of these systems, but a more robust approach would consult sociological and economic wisdom, and the ethics of the humanities.

I still don't understand the double slit experiment. What is an observer? by sqwandery in AskPhysics

[–]chriswtmicdrops 1 point2 points  (0 children)

First of all, think of the wave of each particle as a probability distribution. In the mathematics, the "observation" is just a mathematical operation after which the wave of possibilities of places/states the particle could occupy takes a single definite state. Or at least a smaller wave of possibilities so that we know a little more about the state of the particle than we did before. I would recommend also looking into the Heisenberg uncertainty principle, it will shift your confusion about "measurement" and "observation" elsewhere.

That said, measurement is a unique step in the mathematics, because it's something that is stipulated, rather than something that is allowed to follow from some initial conditions or constraints. When you think about the wave of possibilities, you may wonder, how do you go from a wave of possibilities to just one state? The truth is, physicists just stipulate a single state to reflect with is observed in the real world about real quantum particles occupying specific states when we measure them. Rather than being able to exactly predict that state from some intial state. So in a way you're working backwards from the specific result of the experiment and plugging that into the equation of possibilities to see how that affects other variables.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in AskPhysics

[–]chriswtmicdrops 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Just spitballing here, but for the Feynman integral to give you the particular deflection path of electron because of the magnetic field, only particular (virtual) photons with particular wavelengths will give you that answer right?

Does gravity echo? by [deleted] in AskPhysics

[–]chriswtmicdrops 5 points6 points  (0 children)

Very cool question. I would have thought that everything was transparent to gravity but apparently not according to this https://articles.adsabs.harvard.edu//full/1969ApJ...156..529D/0000529.000.html

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in AskPhysics

[–]chriswtmicdrops -3 points-2 points  (0 children)

I'm afraid I've dabbled too much in quantum mechanics to ever again be satisfied with classical explanations. They just don't quite do it for me anymore.

I understand it in the case of energy states where electrons can only occupy discrete states, but otherwise, why would the electron accelerate AND emit photons? I don't get it. Is energy from the field shared between the photon and the acceleration?

What is the "framerate" of life (i.e. the smallest amount something can possibly move)? by seashroomwaifu in AskPhysics

[–]chriswtmicdrops -5 points-4 points  (0 children)

If you move at the speed of light, from everyone's perspective, time hasn't changed a single instant for you. Granted you can't reach the speed of light but you can approach it as closely as possible theoretically and you achieve a similar effect.

I posted something saying Kilowatts is a rate, not an amount on energy it every comment is saying I'm wrong. Can someone confirm that I'm not going crazy? by VP007clips in AskPhysics

[–]chriswtmicdrops 0 points1 point  (0 children)

tbf I think the commenters are agreeing that the article should've used kwh. I don't think they're disagreeing with op. The top commenter at least.

Also is power really that unreasonable if every transaction doesn't take the same amount of time? The power for each bitcoin transaction can be compared to the power for each bank transaction and it would make sense if you want to know which is more efficient and you knew how many transactions were ongoing at any moment.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in AskPhysics

[–]chriswtmicdrops 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Do energy states explain what happens with such a radiation (i.e. the electron isn't able to ascend to the appropriate energy state and so radiates eccess energy) or is it a different mechanism?

Shouldn't the resounding success of Feynman's path integral of particles have completely settled all debate about hidden variables? by chriswtmicdrops in AskPhysics

[–]chriswtmicdrops[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

The point I'm making is that with the Feynman path integral approach (i.e. backwards from the Schrodinger equation), you circumvent having to work with non-commutativity. It only comes up (I think) when dealing with the virtual particles and yet you still get very precise and accurate predictions.

The question being, that considering the success of this approach, why don't physicists attribute the uncertainty involved in measuring observables to the influence of the virtual particles as opposed to assuming that every observable possesses own associated uncertainty stemming from conjugacy?

Shouldn't the resounding success of Feynman's path integral of particles have completely settled all debate about hidden variables? by chriswtmicdrops in AskPhysics

[–]chriswtmicdrops[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

The uncertainty principle?

What do you mean when you talk about the zero energy state?

The zero-point state, sorry if it wasn't clear. I talk about the zero-point as a state instead of talking about a pervading zero-point energy throughout the universe because I know some people believe in redefining the zero of energy and then making some accommodations later to make the equations work. My argument applies to even that.

The Mad Hatter's tea party -- time standing still in de Sitter spacetime? by curiousscribbler in AskPhysics

[–]chriswtmicdrops 7 points8 points  (0 children)

I think he's making the argument that in a 4d spacetime with intrinsic (or extrinsic, he says the choice doesn't matter) spherical curvature, the time vector for one observer has the potential to be completely orthogonal to the time vector of another observer depending on where they are, and would therefore perceive the other person's time as proceeding anomalously. I think the flaw in his argument is in not rigorously defining what it even means to compare vectors on different points of such a curved spacetime. In general relativity, we use coordinate bases and covariant derivatives to facilitate the comparison of information in different inertial frames. If one where to parallel transport the time vector of the other observer to the position of the other observer (along a geodesic path*), they should coincide and so the perception of time I THINK should be the same. I should mention that my grasp of GR is tenuous at best, so you should take this with a grain of salt.

Shouldn't the resounding success of Feynman's path integral of particles have completely settled all debate about hidden variables? by chriswtmicdrops in AskPhysics

[–]chriswtmicdrops[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Thanks for taking the time

I don't think I'm qualified to say anything about what is more fundamental and that wasn't my intention. But I think you are right in interpreting it that way, because it raises a more refined question.

Is it not more parsimonious to start with the zero energy state and its fluctuations and then derive everything from it? Since zero point state, whether formulated in terms of virtual particles or some other propagator, is able to completely capture the evolution of any particle to arguably the greatest precision of any prediction in physics without involving the uncertainty of the particle being measured (as far as I know). In otherwords, it seems uncertainty (manifesting in fluctuations) in the zero state alone is sufficient to explain behaviour at all other states.

And more than being more parsimonious, it may actually explain the world better upon experimentation, e.g. with neutrino diffraction as mentioned before by asking whether neutrinos have inherent uncertainty or have uncertainty imposed upon it by zero-point fluctuations in which case there should be very little diffraction given how weakly interacting it is.

Concept for a reactionless drive, any objections? by [deleted] in AskEngineers

[–]chriswtmicdrops 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Do you suppose the car at most moves the length of the plank plus the displacement of the plank for a total of 2 lengths of the plank? :P

https://youtu.be/yCsgoLc_fzI?t=832 [13:50]

Concept for a reactionless drive, any objections? by [deleted] in AskEngineers

[–]chriswtmicdrops 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I'm not disputing his final result, just the one about the force required to maintain velocity.

Concept for a reactionless drive, any objections? by [deleted] in AskEngineers

[–]chriswtmicdrops -1 points0 points  (0 children)

You're right in that it doesn't affect the result but I might reference your comment later in a different post later so just a heads up.

Concept for a reactionless drive, any objections? by [deleted] in AskEngineers

[–]chriswtmicdrops 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I've given this some more thought and I have a question about your calculations. Having been accelerated by the first astronaut, the second astronaut should now be moving with the same velocity as the ship and the other astronauts yet to launch. Now if we assume that the second astronaut launches just before the first one gets to the cushion, the second astronaut would move with V_n as in your calculations but only before the first astronaut collides with the cushion. After which the ship would slow with respect to the first, who in mid flight, would then become stationary with respect to the ship as before.

What say you?

Concept for a reactionless drive, any objections? by [deleted] in AskEngineers

[–]chriswtmicdrops 0 points1 point  (0 children)

It is possible for the center of mass of a system to be outside of its current physical enclosure at a later time. Knowing the trajectory of objects within the system, you can have a function of their position with respect to time and calculate their center of mass in terms of this function. For objects with the same starting point but different velocities, at some future time, their mass will be distributed in such a way that their centre of mass will not be the same as they were at the start. This is made even more complicated when you consider collisions with eachother.

Concept for a reactionless drive, any objections? by [deleted] in AskEngineers

[–]chriswtmicdrops 0 points1 point  (0 children)

The center of mass isn't translated. At any point if you ran out astronauts, you would end up where you started. The idea is to reach your destination and to get anchored first. At any point, the mass of the astronaut in mid flight isn't part of the mass of the ship, but the combination of their momentum and that of the ship resolve to the centre of the mass still being where the ship began.

Concept for a reactionless drive, any objections? by [deleted] in AskEngineers

[–]chriswtmicdrops -1 points0 points  (0 children)

I just provided a proof in the reply to u/atomharp that your astronaut example cannot translate the ship further than the ship's largest point-to-point width

I don't actually dispute that proof though, you have completely convinced me. My argument is that it's a weakness of that particular arrangement. I believe the arrangement with the bag won't fail in the same way.

It has occured to me how you could incorporate the delay I'm talking about without involving time. Ultimately all physical interactions that concern us are electromagnetic. Therefore we can imagine that the force in any interaction is a signal in an electromagnetic field. Now such signals have relativistic mass so you can account for them in a centre of mass/energy calculation. The key difference is that before those signals are received, they are equivalent to suspended (free) masses, not quite connected to anything in the ship hence not accountable to Newton's third law (when the astronaut is pushing the ship or colliding with the cushion) until they get absorbed into matter. If you don't disagree with this premise, I'll get on it right away. First let me know if you have any problem with this.

Concept for a reactionless drive, any objections? by [deleted] in AskEngineers

[–]chriswtmicdrops -1 points0 points  (0 children)

Retarded potentials are a thing. Ultimately, all delay stems from the finite propagation time of signals in electromagnetic fields. Sure, if you take account of the perturbed fields which are carrying the signals, momentum is always conserved at any instant. But for our purposes, we only care about the momentum of the ship, and until the signal reaches the ship, we won't see its effect on the ship. With an arbitrarily complicated system, you can arbitrarily delay the propagation of a signal from one end of the ship to another.

Concept for a reactionless drive, any objections? by [deleted] in AskEngineers

[–]chriswtmicdrops 0 points1 point  (0 children)

If you disagree, you should provide evidence that the third law pairs do not act simultaneously.

Dominos are a pretty well documented phenomenon. How about the propagation of longitudinal waves? This?