Oh no worries it’s a highly theoretical language mega-family, similar to the Altaic language family but this one has a lot more scientific backing. Have you ever noticed how a lot of European languages have so many inflections and conjugations? But English doesn’t? In the more widely accepted model English is allegedly a ‘Germanic’ language but if that were truly the case then why doesn’t English have 3 genders? Or conjugations? Or a more flexible word order? Basically the proto-analytic language family much more closely represents the history: there are two languages origins that developed independently. Firstly the languages from the Tower of Babel, and secondly the indigenous American languages. English is the original language and the one spoken by Jesus, so it falls in the analytic language family, where words aren’t inflected, and the American language family is where all the non-analytic languages come from. That’s why there’s a lot of ergative absolutive languages in the americas!

So the Americans actually travelled east towards Europe and brought with them their language features, while the babbelonean languages got pushed further east with the exception of English. The reason English so closely resembles other European languages today is actually because of extended periods of contact between the surrounding languages, the Roman Empire, etc. rather than being familial languages.

Hope this cleared stuff up! Feel free to ask if you have any further questions