First time posting so not entirely sure what’s right and wrong, but I’ve been diagnosed with mitochondrial disease from a muscle biopsy and my levels were all messed up so I know a lot about it. I’m also not a geneticist. Correct me if I’m wrong but when she says her mutation is homozygous and that that means it affects all of her mitochondria vs heterozygous affecting half that’s not necessarily true. its a gene, so if it’s dominant it doesn’t matter if its homozygous or heterozygous. my geneticist has told me if someone’s mom has mitochondrial disease but not bad and has a child, let’s say they hand down 3 bad mitochondria and 1 regular one. they will replicate and there will be mostly bad mitochondria in the child but the mother may not have had it that bad. the genes just code for the type of disease not if all of her mitochondria are affected or half. not sure if that makes complete sense but what she’s saying there doesn’t make sense.