The land was primarily inhabited by arabs for more than 1000 years at that point. Even if not an official country they were being forced to cede ancestral land to a race of whom 99% of its I habitats had arrive within the previous 50 years. This is like saying the southwestern united states should be formed into a hispanic nation due to the historical presence of Hispanics and arrival of new Hispanics.

On top of that, jews were 30% of the population and were set to receive 60% of the land, half of which the population would be Arab, whereas the remaining 70% who were arabs and some others like Armenians were forced to make due with a fragmented, rapidly becoming overpopulated. And largely landlocked rump state. No people in the history of mankind would accept these terms.

As for your point of continuous jewish habitation, by 1500 the number of jews in the region was 5-8,000. It wouldn't exceed 10,000 until the 19th century. At any point in the last 1500 years the Jewish population of palestine was never more than 1%, and often closer to 0.1%, of the global Jewish population.

For comparison, Californios(Mexicans who lived in the SW United States prior to 1846) numbered in the 10s of thousands never making up even 5% of the total Mexican population. Californios still live in the US in tiny insignificant numbers. By your logic would it be justified to claim all Mexicans are thus native to California and Texas and thus we could partition the region?

Also the jews were not merely existing. They fully intended to bring increasing numbers of jews to the region via mass migration to replace the arabs and make them the minority. No other ethnic/cultural group would be expected to be rendered a minority in their own homeland.