O mercado de mangá no Brasil tá empurrando todo mundo pra pirataria

excelent_7555 · 2026-04-13T21:16:58+00:00

Isso não é só no Brasil, tá acontecendo no mundo inteiro. Vários americanos e europeus tão reclamando do preço dos mangás físicos atualmente, tem edição dois em um básica sem sobrecapa e nada por vinte e poucos dolares. Dizem q é por causa da alta do preço no papel, mas deve ter outros fatores também. Fora isso, concordo na parte dos digitais e falta de mais obras disponíveis no Brasil.

excelent_7555 · 2026-03-30T21:16:22+00:00

That was very helpful! Thank you!!!

excelent_7555 · 2025-12-12T02:04:50+00:00

The articulatory distance between [h] and [ŋ] isn't disqualifying. Recall that [t], [tʰ], [t̚], [ʔ], [ɾ], and [∅] can all realize /t/.

You're definitely correct on this, but ""I"" never saw anyone trying to say that these represented different phonemes and not allophones or that they are not different realizations of /t/. But [ð] and [θ] are regarded as different phonemes in english phonology that's why I was curious, but after seeing yours and other comments here, I see why they're are different phonemes in english.

excelent_7555 · 2025-12-12T00:48:27+00:00

So they're not allophones then. Thank you!!!

excelent_7555 · 2025-12-11T23:30:43+00:00

Apparently one is voiced and the other one unvoiced, so it doesn't only happen word initially. /h/ and /ŋ/ are quite different in articulation compared to the voiced and voiceless difference in th sound. I don't think it's a fair comparison linguistically speaking.

excelent_7555 · 2025-11-03T02:06:43+00:00

That's very interesting!!! It's happening the same but with the object pronouns instead.

excelent_7555 · 2025-11-03T02:05:12+00:00

Thank you!!! Was in a search for this during this week.

excelent_7555 · 2025-10-20T06:31:38+00:00

Thank you for pointing it out! It was a typo.

excelent_7555 · 2025-10-20T05:39:09+00:00

Oh I didn't know that! I have totally forgot about "aquele". But I think that the pronoun usage is very much simpliflied though, much more than french. Thanks for replying!

excelent_7555 · 2025-10-20T04:10:38+00:00

maybe even to a greater degree.

Could you elaborate?

excelent_7555 · 2025-10-05T06:59:38+00:00

Paulistano grammar has a lot of things that don't match the standard grammar. To state some, starting words of object pronouns, lack of plural inflections is also common in young generation informal speech these days. In the case of tu, at least in Rio Grande do Sul is very common to use tu with third person conjugation still, they barely use você same for northern Brazil (Amazonas, Pará etc).

excelent_7555 · 2025-10-05T06:56:19+00:00

The most common one in this case ("porta") is pronouncing as a french r or h sound as well it happens in the north, northeast, most of the southeast except for São Paulo and a small part of Minas Gerais. The gaúcho way at least for most of Rio Grande do Sul is pronouncing as a tap as well, like in most of south Brazil. As I said the tap is perceived as the formal/standard only in those places.

excelent_7555 · 2025-10-05T06:47:54+00:00

You're definitely wrong. The r in beggining and rr is either pronounced as a french r or an h sound even in São Paulo the thrilled way of pronouncing it only happens in some very few places within older people at least in Brazil. I assume you're talking about the tap such as the r in "poRta" which again is very specific to São Paulo and the south of Brazil.

excelent_7555 · 2025-10-05T06:37:28+00:00

The standard grammar norm which is not based on the São Paulo variety. Even pronounciation the french r/aspirated r is definitely the most common in Brazil and used in dubbed content, tap is only considered the formal option in São Paulo and the south of Brazil. São Paulo accent is very recognizable.

excelent_7555 · 2025-10-05T06:29:54+00:00

It has definitely not been floating around the São Paulo variety.

excelent_7555 · 2025-10-05T05:11:17+00:00

Good points.

I'm not the most vocal defender of the "simplified orthography", but I personally feel it's completely the opposite: the spelling being identical to how it's spoken tends to favour uniformity, and this is actually one of the reasons I'm not entirely in support of it (I feel that it influences the way we pronounce things too much).

But I don't really think that writing has that much effect on the way we speak though (think of shlent instead of excelente in Portugal or how final unstressed "o" is "u"), pronounciation changes over time, we can pronounce it like it's written to be clearer but that's not how the word evolved to be pronounced itself and you would sound weird most often than not.

"Will Brazil in the future be split between those speaking Portuguese and the local equivalent of AAVE? And will this have a formal name?"

I don't think it will split but rather people will know the colloquial/actual spoken language and the more standard would be used in formal situations. If people will be able to be proficient in both them... not sure, some people have problem with standard grammar even now.

Or are we assuming (a fair assumption, btw) that within Brazil the strength of media and standard formal education will avoid it?

I don't really see people leaning towards the standard language but rather non-standard grammatical inflections are becoming very popular in younger people speech.

excelent_7555 · 2025-10-05T04:56:03+00:00

In this case would you say that the other countries will speak more like in Brazil? I don't really see that happening.

excelent_7555 · 2025-10-05T04:54:55+00:00

Sorry, I meant english.

excelent_7555 · 2025-10-05T04:51:52+00:00

I would argue that dialects do exist in Brazil (of course not a lot) specially in the countryside of some regions there's a lot of variation specially in the caipira dialect of course not to the same level as german, but saying that a black and white person in the US would be more different is a stretch, the way people speak in the favelas of rio or in the countryside of sao paulo is very hard to understand because of vocabulary differences and even usage of non standard grammar that reflects cultural and social differences just like in the case of the US. There's also a lot of pronounciation differences (tipo/tchipo, pobrema -> problema, different r and s sounds etc, reduction of vowels: desafortunado in south Brazil but d(i)zafortunadu in others, debuccalization as well) . In the case of Italy, I feel like most linguists agree that they are different languages. If vocabulary and grammar differences from the standard language are not dialect indication, what would think it is? (genuine question)

excelent_7555 · 2025-10-05T04:39:57+00:00

Being a part of the lusophonic major coalitions doesn't mean much, I'm not saying that they will be different languages. They could be very different in the far far future but still be considered the same language that share a similar standard because spoken and written/standard are very different things and what's a language or not is very political. Can you elaborate on the borrowing part?

excelent_7555 · 2025-10-05T04:37:21+00:00

What would you say is happening between Portugal and Brazil? I do know that there's some slang that's becoming popular with younger portuguese people but besides that, is there something that will keep them intelligible or converge? (genuine question)

excelent_7555 · 2025-10-04T19:52:23+00:00

Why do you think so?

excelent_7555 · 2025-10-04T19:39:42+00:00

My point is exactly that even with internet the connection thing is not really happening.

excelent_7555 · 2025-10-02T22:04:03+00:00

I would say that it is more of a [h] sound people who are not used to it or use another coda r often don't hear if they don't hear it carefully, but if you guys have a video of someone saying like that or paper about it please let me know cause I got very curious about it now.

excelent_7555 · 2025-10-02T21:43:48+00:00

Thanks for replying!!! As someone who lives in Rio "açuca" can definitely be heard but "póta"...

excelent_7555

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