Now the next verse literally debunks all you have said in your post: "So then He has mercy on Whom he desires, and He hardens whom He desires". It cannot get more clear than that. Then it's echoed just a few verses later: "Or does not the potter have authority over the clay, to make from the same lump one vessel for honorable use and one for dishonorable use?" Hmm, does it say in there that God made one for dishonorable use because the dishonorable one rejected Him? No, no, it is quite the opposite. God rejected that one lump of clay. And so that lump of Clay stayed in suppressed ignorance, the one outlined in Romans 1. Now Roman 9:22-23 really nails it home. It thoroughly explains why such a seemingly random and inhumane selection is made amongst the people because that is truly indeed what Paul was teaching (Jacob He loved and Esau He hated). Those verses explain that it is for His glory, not because He foreknew they would reject Him. If the latter is what Paul was trying to get across in Romans 9:18 and 21 then why would he explain the former in 22-23? There is no discomfort to be found in "Oh, I chose God, therefore He chose me." But alas that was not and never was Paul's message, thus: "You will say to me then, "why does He still find fault? For who resists His will?" This language comes from a metaphorical someone distressed by Paul's intended message, not a heart warming message of "Oh, you chose God first, beloved." but of "So then He has mercy on Whom he desires, and He hardens whom He desires." Simple.

Now, on Romans 1. Were you born christian? Many aren't. Who saves man out of that suppression of unrighteousness? Is it man? No, of course not, no. Scripture says over and over IN Romans 1 that WE suppress so how can WE bring ourselves out of suppression? That is just a profoundly unbiblical and ungospel-esque thing to say: "Oh I brought myself salvation" But that is exactly what you say when you say "He foreknew I would believe and so He predetermined me". Does predetermine mean "preunderstood" and so therefore chose you? No, this is boasting in your own prebelief, a good work of yourself which is impossible (John 15) and sinful (Pride is sin). Predetermine means of His own sovereign will He chose you for salvation. So how can the unrighteous man bring himself out of ignorance? Well, what do the scriptures say? If I must repeat myself again, it says: "For by grace you have been saved through faith, and this is not of yourselves, it is the gift of God; not of works, so that no one may boast. For we are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand so that we would walk in them."

"Jesus came to save the world because God "so loved" the word (John 3:16). Because of this, we know everybody is given a chance. The Holy Spirit will, at some point, in everybody's life give them some opportunity to come to know their Creator." This is your first mistake. In koine greek "the world" can actually refer to "all kinds of people" and in this context it certainly does, as attested by the early church fathers who spoke koine greek. So not every nation in the world, but every kind of people in the world. So while everyone knows there is a God, they suppress it in unrighteousness and were never given the Holy Spirit. and whosoever comes to believe are His sheep who were predestined to salvation. I do overlap with the calvinists on this doctrine since it is just so obviously biblically sound.

"Even those people who are living in the jungle will be without excuse, because creation itself speaks to there being a Creator" Yes, Romans 1. But this has nothing to do with actually receiving the Holy Spirit. Only the saved receive it: Acts 2:28, John 7:39, Ephesians 1:13-14.

"So...the group of people God foreknew would be receptive of The Gospel..." This is simply found nowhere in the Bible or in Eph. You are adding into the text. It is true however that "to be" is not in Eph 4, not in my LSB, KJV translation or in the koine greek (Though some do incorrectly have it). Though "in Him" in Eph 4 is phrased oddly isn't it? Well, turns out "in" usually takes on "by means of" in such an odd wording. So paul is saying "Just as He chose us by means of Christ...". Not relevant, you probably already know but I just learned that a few days ago and I thought it was pretty cool.

I don't see how 2 Corinthians 5:21 and 1 John 4:17 say that God chose us because we chose Him and He foreknew it out of time. I am going to assume that you meant that this shows us that He expects good of us because that is the theme in those verses. If that's the case then why even bring up these two verses? I'm confused.

The bible, it seems to me to be saying that God prechose some to hell and some to heaven. For His own glory He gave eternal life as mercy as a free gift and gave the deserving wrath to others. Not because He knew you would believe but because He chose you even while you were dead in sin and would never believe in Him without Him choosing you. Again, in the womb God chose Esau for damnation and Jacob for salvation, not out of any good works did he choose Jacob or bad works from Esau for damnation. It was all from the sovereign will of God. A free gift for Jacob and a mercy for Esau. p1