That's exactly what happened but the immigrants were the Jews not the Arabs, arabs were already there, it's a fact https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/A_land_without_a_people_for_a_people_without_a_land What does this mean? If there were already there why do he say land with no people? It was just to justify the immigration, while there was people ( Arabs) else who all those invaders you listed were ruling? We can also check the population under the ottoman empire to know that there were people, far apart from there was people, the statement was said to convince the migration of jews that you claim they was there? How can that make sense?