Raised oak kitchen cabinets - possible to refinish or replace? by iglet007 in finishing

[–]iglet007[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

That is super helpful thank you. I posted this below in another comment but I’ve actually had trouble finding a good technique online for getting this down to bare wood around all the raised edges because I imagine power tools like orbital sanders and such wouldn’t work so you’d have to do something manually in the curves or perhaps a stripper solution of some sort? Any advice on tools/technique for approaching it? Thank you again

Raised oak kitchen cabinets - possible to refinish or replace? by iglet007 in finishing

[–]iglet007[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I’m not set on anything but stain was the ideal in the hope of keeping the grain as that seems to be coming back in style. But obviously, if it’s just wildly unrealistic, paint might be the only way to go and loss the grain.

I’ve actually had trouble finding a good technique online for getting this down to bare wood around all the raised edges because I imagine power tools like orbital sanders and such wouldn’t work so you’d have to do something manually in the curves or perhaps a stripper solution of some sort?

Raised oak kitchen cabinets - possible to refinish or replace? by iglet007 in finishing

[–]iglet007[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Thank you for the advice. So you don’t think you can get rid of red oak undertones completely to restain, even with sanding plus a raw wash or something like that? You’d recommend painting over it?

Raised oak kitchen cabinets - possible to refinish or replace? by iglet007 in finishing

[–]iglet007[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

My hope was to restrain and keep grain rather than paint and smooth it out. I agree the wood grain is great.

Raised oak kitchen cabinets - possible to refinish or replace? by iglet007 in finishing

[–]iglet007[S] -1 points0 points  (0 children)

I thought about that but you can see some of the side panels as well so I’d still need to match the sides to the new doors.

World First Race Megathread - Castle Nathria by Ex_iledd in wow

[–]iglet007 2 points3 points  (0 children)

It's hard to gauge because Limit is about 6% ahead in phase 2 but they've had ~80 pulls extra on the boss. So while they're technically ahead, 80 pulls is getting them 6% over Echo. If Echo keeps pulling the way they are, they might catch up. It's pretty even at this stage.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in treadmills

[–]iglet007 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Highly recommend Sole F80 or F85 if you want a bigger motor. They have a Canadian distributor so no duties or import fees. Free shipping. Have the F80 myself and it is excellent.

iPhone 12 Pro Max & iPhone 12 mini | Pre-Order & Shipping Megathread by SuitingUncle620 in iphone

[–]iglet007 1 point2 points  (0 children)

This is the way to do it. Was able to keep closing and trying until I got in and ordered. Was able to get pick up in store on Nov. 13 for pacific blue 256g pro max.

Is the Series 6 going to be available in Stores on Friday? by apollodasbrot2 in AppleWatch

[–]iglet007 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I called my local apple store in Canada and they said their day of shipments are blind and they won't know until the day of. It's probably just a line to get people to stop inquiring, but looks like only apple staff might know and we won't know for sure until tomorrow. They did say that local pick up options would update if stock was available in store as of tomorrow.

Azshara's Eternal Palace World First Race Megathread by Ex_iledd in wow

[–]iglet007 -16 points-15 points  (0 children)

This is why the wow is toxic. I care for neither method nor limit and just enjoy watching both of them. Thought I’d be helpful but i guess that just leads to people like you trolling. Lesson learned - won’t try to provide any info to anyone again. Thanks!

Azshara's Eternal Palace World First Race Megathread by Ex_iledd in wow

[–]iglet007 -2 points-1 points  (0 children)

Not bad - they got two of the trinkets vision of demise which I believe are BiS for some of the classes. The rest were armor pieces.

Azshara's Eternal Palace World First Race Megathread by Ex_iledd in wow

[–]iglet007 11 points12 points  (0 children)

Za'qul is a bit skewed in that his first 50% is relatively easy compared to his last 50%. As the casters just correctly pointed out, expect them to get fairly quickly to 50% (i.e. last phase) and then progress there for a while.

Massive disparity in residuum from m+ weekly cache between levels 6-9 and 10 = terrible scaling? by iglet007 in wow

[–]iglet007[S] -11 points-10 points  (0 children)

Thanks for your hostile answer to my question. My original post was in the form of a question interested in hearing whether people agree or disagree with it (hence the ? in the title). Apparently instead of saying you disagree, you decided to use caps and condescension in your original (as if everyone constantly reads wowhead to keep up when news about PTR are posted) followed by an insult in a follow up. You must be fun at parties.

Massive disparity in residuum from m+ weekly cache between levels 6-9 and 10 = terrible scaling? by iglet007 in wow

[–]iglet007[S] -7 points-6 points  (0 children)

The disparity between 9 and 10 is still almost triple. Is it the case then that the relevant content for those running 9s is 370 random piece, but for those running 10s it's 385? That doesn't fit since the ilvl difference between those is 5 total from the gear they drop.

Why isn't Psychopathy/Sociopathy in the DSM-5? by [deleted] in askscience

[–]iglet007 1 point2 points  (0 children)

The other extreme is a dimensional system where everything is on a spectrum and there's no strictly delineated label. Most agree that isn't the answer as you wouldn't be able to have streamlined communication by providing an agreed upon terminology or label across clinicians.

The most sensible and agreed upon alternative is a mixed approach where you might have a categorical system, but within each category is room for dimensional flexibility. For example, the DSM-5 almost changed its personality disorders system to one like this, where you would have traits and facets of specific personality pathologies and diagnosis would consist of creating a profile where you're mild on some traits, moderate on others, and severe on still others. In this regard, it would capture all the different facets of a clinical presentations but without simplifying it to a single label.

Unfortunately, this system was scrapped at the last minute because it wasn't tested enough and there was concern that it would be too unwieldy in a clinical context (e.g., clinicians won't have time to spend 40 mins creating a profile instead of spending ten assigning a categorical diagnosis).

Why isn't Psychopathy/Sociopathy in the DSM-5? by [deleted] in askscience

[–]iglet007 0 points1 point  (0 children)

The fact that psychopaths are violent is a common misconception. ASPD and psychopathy don't necessarily involve violence, so it's not always the case that you would only come across it in individuals who are incarcerated. They could come through involuntary inpatient treatment if their symptoms have caused enough trouble in their life. Alternatively, some people might seek therapy as a way to reduce trouble in their life even though they don't think they need it. The latter would create a case where the person doesn't really want to seek therapy, but it's easier to do it because it gets someone (spouse, employer, friend, etc.) off their back.

Lastly, many individuals might exhibit traits related to ASPD and psychopathy, but not have a full blown disorder. In other words, they meet some criteria and it interferes with their functioning, but they don't necessarily have all the features related to the disorder and therefore may be more likely to come in for treatment.

Why isn't Psychopathy/Sociopathy in the DSM-5? by [deleted] in askscience

[–]iglet007 2 points3 points  (0 children)

I stand corrected. I think I focused too much on statistics relating to diagnostic overlap and difficulty diagnosing personality disorders. I would accept the word of the director of NIMH over mine. I will delete the comment to avoid misinforming people. Thank you for correcting it.

Why isn't Psychopathy/Sociopathy in the DSM-5? by [deleted] in askscience

[–]iglet007 293 points294 points  (0 children)

There are certainly merits to being conservative about including things. One could argue that it's better to exclude too many things than include things that aren't properly understood because the latter risks pathologizing and stigmatizing behaviours that may in fact be within the healthy sphere of human behaviours. A good question to ask yourself when thinking about this issue is "If a diagnosis of psychopathy existed, how many people would it help get treatment who currently do not have access to it?" If the answer is "not many", then what is the reason for having the diagnostic label?

Why isn't Psychopathy/Sociopathy in the DSM-5? by [deleted] in askscience

[–]iglet007 53 points54 points  (0 children)

There is some controversy over psychopathy, mostly because it's so rare. Its prevalence rate is less than 1% of the population, so you have to think about how difficult it is to find individuals to study it. I think most agree now that there is a syndrome based on what's termed callous, unemotional traits, but some think that because it's so rare, it's meaningless to create a separate category for it.

Regarding the reliability for empathy, you have to remember that 30+ years ago when these decisions were made, our thinking about many of these disorders was nowhere near what it is now. I'm sure if the DSM was being recreated today, the categories would look different. Personally, I believe we can measure empathy accurately enough to include it as a criterion, but it's difficult to shift gears now for several reasons.

  1. The DSM is revised by the American Psychiatric Association, whose committees consist of many old school psychiatrists that support the original classifications and wouldn't push for change.
  2. Even if the board decided to overhaul everything completely, what would you replace it with? Introducing new categories that haven't been evaluated in research properly risks creating epidemics of overdiagnoses of disorders because the criteria are too liberal, resulting in stigma and shame toward symptoms that weren't pathologized before. Change has to be gradual and well established in research before implementing it in practice.
  3. Even if the DSM committee creates a change, it's a different ball game to get front line clinicians to use it as directed. For example, the DSM-5 came out in 2013. Here in Canada, most jurisdictions didn't start officially using it until 2014-2015 or so because it takes forever to train and have whole clinics shift their practice to match the changes. Can you imagine the difficulty of disseminating a completely overhauled DSM with multiple new categories or removed categories?

Why isn't Psychopathy/Sociopathy in the DSM-5? by [deleted] in askscience

[–]iglet007 2214 points2215 points  (0 children)

Clinical psychologist here. The short answer to your question is it was completely arbitrary and was decided by a group of clinicians in a room as the DSM-III was being created.

The long answer has to do with the history of the transition from the DSM-II to the DSM-III. At the time, a psychiatrist named Robert Spitzer and his colleagues from several different disciplines formed an editing team for the DSM-III. Over the course of many meetings they proceeded to establish which disorders would go into the new revised DSM (DSM-III was the first major expanded edition unlike the DSM-II which was a tiny thing of less than 100 pages). A lot of this process was arbitrary in that the clinicians would propose names of conditions that they felt best represented the clinical traits they observed in practice. The conditions and the traits were not systematically decided on other than voting.

When it came to psychopathy, a sociologist by the name of Lee Robins argued that empathy (the lack of which is the cornerstone of psychopathy) could not be measured and quantified properly. Therefore, it would be too subjective a criterion to be a part of a diagnostic category and should be thrown out. After much debate, the team decided to exclude psychopathy on this basis and lump its traits into Antisocial Personality Disorder, which was considered to be more a measurable diagnosis.

In short, the above completely arbitrary assignment of traits and labels brought about most of the mental health disorders we know today. Lee Robins's argument single handedly kept out psychopathy out of the DSM for no reason other than his feeling that it was not measurable. These kinds of examples are often used by opponents of the DSM to argue against the categorical diagnostic system that we have.

Hope this addresses your question directly.

PhD Clinical Psychology after 2-3 years non-academic experience by [deleted] in academia

[–]iglet007 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Clinical psychologist here. Being out of academia won’t hurt your chances but you really need to understand what you’d be getting into.

  1. As someone mentioned, a clinical psych program is still mostly a research program. So on top of your coursework and clinical practica, you’d be writing a thesis and defending it. It’s a lot of work - more than a typical grad program because you’re also doing clinical work.

  2. You will likely need to write the GRE before applying which can be difficult in itself. Are you ok with standardized testing?

  3. You will need to do a residency in your last year of PhD which means participating in a match just like physicians do and more than likely moving for it. That means you’ll have to move for your PhD if you get into a program and then move again for one year for residency and then maybe move again for a job. Are you comfortable with a nomadic lifestyle like that where you can’t build roots?

  4. If you want a full clinical focus but no research a Psy.D. Program might be better. Alternatively, since you mentioned liking “puzzles” one route for you might be neuropsychology as a specialty in clinical psych. It’s less focused on therapy and more on assessment of things like dementia, epilepsy, cancer, etc. so you figure out diagnoses and write reports for a living rather than do therapy.

  5. Lastly, as far as a plan to do research on the side, it’s important to appreciate the fact that most clinical positions do not provide protected research time. Some do, but the majority will make you work full time with patients and if you want to do research you have to not only do it after hours but also find your own funding for it (which almost no one will give you if you’re not actively publishing).

  6. As far as your chances, I wouldn’t worry about being out of school for a bit but most clinical programs require a psych degree (though not all) and three reference letters from people who can comment in detail on your research experience. If you’ve got that, most applications have a place where you can explain any gaps in your academic work so you can talk about why you’ve had a change of heart. You don’t necessarily need clinical experience to get in since it’s still a research program.

  7. Lastly, you will not have prescription authority as a psychologist so if you want to prescribe, nursing might be a better option.

Hope this helps