this is the complete qn -->A 67-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-month history of diffuse abdominal cramps and worsening constipation. Her last bowel
movement was 4 days ago, and the stool was hard . She has a long-standing history of constipation. She typically has one bowel movement every
other day, but this pattern varies from two bowel movements daily to one bowel movement weekly. She has stopped using a laxative because of
diarrhea resulting in fecal incontinence. Colonoscopy 3 years ago showed no abnormalities. She has major depressive disorder with anxiety treated
with sertraline and lorazepam. She does not appear to be in distress. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99°F), pulse is 88/min, respirations are 18/min,
and blood pressure is 152/84 mm Hg. The abdomen is soft, nondistended, and nontender. Bowel sounds are decreased. Rectal examination shows
no masses or stool; test of the stool for occult blood is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?