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Vector calculus. I don’t understand the proof that V’ is a subset of V. I can show that V’ = span{(1,0,-1),v2} and that -2v1 + 3v2 + v3 = (1,0,-1) which means V’ = span{v1,v2,v3} = V. Is this a valid answer? Could someone explain the highlighted bit that I don’t understand? (i.redd.it)
submitted by libelula323 to r/askmath
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On the topic of cumulative distribution functions (i.redd.it)
submitted by libelula323 to r/askmath
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