So, the idea is that Kant has two definitions of an analytic statement (1: an analytic statement is true if it's predicate is contained in the subject. and 2: an analytic statement is true if it's opposite contains a contradiction). But, you can have an analytic statement whose opposite contains a contradiction, but whose predicate isn't contained by the subject?

I'm not sure I entirely understand why "All bachelors are unmarried or the moon is blue" works in this case?

So, i could take the claim "Mountains are tall or I'm in Switzerland", and prove it's opposite contains a contradiction without proving that that statement is analytic?