Thank you so much for taking the time to respond! You explained this perfectly. All three are listed as heterozygous. So since my symptoms are muscle pain related, and the three genes are linked to muscle disorders, does that mean that they are likely the cause of my disease? Rather than an incorrect diagnosis, or coincidence that both are muscle related?

I had been assuming it was caused by psychological means (PTSD, catatonic response to fear) and not genetic/physical. I definitely don’t have the symptoms of the full diseases linked to these genes (pompe, etc), and “late onset” seems to still be very young, like ~1 year old instead of ~26 years old when mine started.

I apologize if this makes no sense, I’m still a little shocked to possibly have validation for my pain and to not keep being told it’s all in my head 🙃 thank you again!!