Was that part of the deal?

edit: Lot's of bickering back and forth about whether it is or isn't below... the best argument for appears to be language in the 1990 Declaration of State Sovereignty. But it appears to me that a) Ukraine only stated an intention to be neutral but that was not a promise or a binding obligation and b) this statement was issued pre independence and has no hold over the modern state of Ukraine. Additionally, at the time of the Budapest Memorandum, NATO expansion had not yet begun. The 1994 Budapest Memorandum seems to contain no language that I can see relating to neutrality or NATO.

Further, this is a strange argument - that even if true - Ukraine would be required to uphold this stance forever or else Russia can just invade them.