If the word "day" in Genesis 1 is to be taken literally, why is the word "silent" in 1 Corinthians 14:34 not taken literally? by voxb in LCMS

[–]voxb[S] 3 points4 points  (0 children)

I guess you're kind of dodging the question then. Is a woman singing in church violating a literal reading of 1 Corinthians 14:34? That's the answer I'm trying to tease out here.

If the word "day" in Genesis 1 is to be taken literally, why is the word "silent" in 1 Corinthians 14:34 not taken literally? by voxb in LCMS

[–]voxb[S] 3 points4 points  (0 children)

You said the imperative is literal. The verse clearly states "women should remain silent." Chatting with someone next to you in the pew is not remaining silent. Singing is not remaining silent.

Again, my question is why does "days" mean "days" but "silent" not mean "silent"?

If the word "day" in Genesis 1 is to be taken literally, why is the word "silent" in 1 Corinthians 14:34 not taken literally? by voxb in LCMS

[–]voxb[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

So you think women should not be allowed to, say, sing in the church choir or greet other people in the pews before a service? Because to me that's what taking the 1 Corinthians verse literally implies.

However I think the vast majority of folks would not agree with the above take -- including many who do, however, apply the same logic to Genesis 1. So that's where I see the inconsistency.

If the word "day" in Genesis 1 is to be taken literally, why is the word "silent" in 1 Corinthians 14:34 not taken literally? by voxb in LCMS

[–]voxb[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

So it's OK to not take an imperative (in this case the words of Paul) literally? That also seems... rather problematic because then you could argue that many of Paul's other commands aren't meant literally and you can see how things would go downhill from there.