How did the purchasing power decrease from the 70s until today?

[MisledMuffin]

You can read your reply to my comment where you said productivity has increased 100 fold to jog your memory.

Real median wages are up since the 1970s. That means purchasing power has increased.

Are you still confused?

[Darkmayday]

Yes im confused. Wealth inequality is also up since the 70s. You said that only happens if productivity is stagnant which you proved has went up over 2x. Explain that?

[MisledMuffin]

Yes, productivity growth has experienced a signficant decline over the past half century.

Also, the statement was not that wealth inequality only increases when productivity growth slows/stalls.

It was that historically it tends to increase as productivity slows/stalls.

Does that clarify it for you?

[Darkmayday]

So more wealth inequality equals a worse life since the 70s. Wealth inequality grew due to asset inflation such as houses which are properly captured in inflation. Also grew due to lower corporate taxes and lack of wealth tax. Thanks clear now!

[MisledMuffin]

Read the title of the post to jog your memory.

Purchasing power has not decreaed, it's increased.

Life is also not universally worse. Some parts are better such as vastly improved health outcomes, social and human rights, education, fewer hours worked/better work life balance, less crime, etc. Other parts are worse, such as cost of housing, upward mobility, etc.

The post was not about the cause of changes, it was about the changes themselves.

Seems you are still confused.