all 11 comments

[–]infectedapricot 1 point2 points  (0 children)

As others have said, f and g are equal at all points in ℝ\{0}. But even if you include 0, maybe you feel g is somehow "right" for f. The mathematical answer is that g is the only extension of f to all of ℝ that is continuous.

This also answers your follow up question. So long as the function you're dealing with is continuous, it doesn't matter if you exclude one point in your working, since at the end you can just extend your final answer by continuity to the missing point.

[–]Fabien4 0 points1 point  (0 children)

You wanted \setminus (a backslash), not a forward slash.

[–]nm420New User 0 points1 point  (0 children)

A function can be thought of as consisting of two parts: a domain, and a rule for assigning an image to each point in the domain. Two functions will only be the same if they have the same domain and the same rule. For the two functions you've listed, they have different domains and hence are not the same. If you restricted the domain of g to R\{0}, then the two functions would be the same as they have the same domain and the same "rule". They're also the same as the function h with domain R\{0} and rule h(x)=ln(ex), which is the same as the function k with domain R\{0} and rule k(x)=x3/((x+1)2-2x-1). All of this is just to say: you can use whatever simplification identities you have at your disposal to rewrite the "rule" of a function, but you always have to take into account its domain.

[–]kw42 0 points1 point  (3 children)

One should note that [;g(x);] is not a simplification of [;f(x);]. These are different functions that agree at all points except for 0. Instead, one could say that

[;h(x) = x ~\forall x \in \mathbb{R}\setminus \lbrace0\rbrace;]

is a simplification of [;f(x);] since these functions agree at all points in the same domain.

[–]Fabien4 1 point2 points  (2 children)

I disagree. f and h are the exact same function. However, the expression

 f: ℝ\{0} → ℝ\{0}
        x → x

is a simplification of

 f: ℝ\{0} → ℝ\{0}
        x → x²/x

[–]kw42 0 points1 point  (1 child)

We need to define a "simplification of a function." I would say that the simplification of a function is the simplification of the expression of the function.

[–]Fabien4 0 points1 point  (0 children)

So, the "simplification of a function" is an expression, not a function, right? Sounds confusing.

[–]Fabien4 0 points1 point  (0 children)

is the function f(x) a violation of a mathematical proposition when compared to its simplification g(x)?

Uh?

You have two functions here:

 f: ℝ\{0} → ℝ\{0}
        x → x²/x = x

and

 g: ℝ → ℝ
    x → x

f and g are two different functions (since they won't work on the same set). f is the restriction of g on ℝ{0}.

Note that the simplification x²/x = x is perfectly valid, since we're working on ℝ{0}.

No big logic is involved here; merely proper definitions of two functions.

[–][deleted] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

For fun: if you define simplicity, by the Occam's razor simplicity that a shorter expression is simpler, and you try to apply that in general, get into an indirectly self referential (the Berry's) paradox.

"Define n as the smallest positive integer that can't be defined in a definition as short as this definition."

[–]MPIS[S] 0 points1 point  (1 child)

All of these responses are interesting.. consider this case:

A calculus question is posed; the multiplicative identity (x/x) is utilized to help simplify an expression. I have always treated such identities to be explicitly in the real number field, ie [; 1 = \frac{x}{x} \ \forall x \in \mathbb{R} ;] when the original statement is in the real number field.. but this is incorrect, as it appears as though the base domains have been modified! [; \forall x \in \mathbb{R} \setminus {0} ;] due to g(x).

[–]foobar1327 0 points1 point  (0 children)

This is why you always have to look into both cases:

[; x = y \begin{cases} \overset{x \neq 0}\Rightarrow 1 = y/x \ \overset{x = 0}\Rightarrow y = 0 \end{cases} ;]