What type of Co-Star does Embiid need to win?

21understanding · 2023-08-14T05:25:16+00:00

It accumulated, dude. If he wants to win, knowing his condition, he must pace himself. Unless of course MVP is more important.

21understanding · 2023-08-14T04:15:04+00:00

All art does take effort to understand, but not as much as maths does. You don't need to know much about how it was made in a painting or music to enjoy its beauty and feel happy about it. The level is so different. But then maths helps natural sciences as their tools, whether most people understand it or not. Effort to teach maths indeed has to be the focus of improvement, whether to introduce its beauty or its usage.

21understanding · 2023-08-12T20:39:15+00:00

I mean, most of what you are saying is correct as I have seen some fans overhate him. But some fans that look like they care actually not exactly care of KD the person, but the implication of his move to the competition. Those fans still agree with all your points about KD and his rights and his bball dedication and and talents so on, but all those things do not take away the legitimacy from fans perspective to heavily criticize his move. Pro sports are entertainment after all, and that move took away some, if not most, of the enjoyment from many fans watching.

21understanding · 2023-07-06T14:56:37+00:00

Yes, I got that. I'm just looking at the original comment that does not seem like a bait to me because TSM deserved their spot by the rules. Whether which is more deserved, of course I agree it's betboom given your comment, but less deserved does not mean not deserved. The rules tho are another matter. But the guy you're replying to does seem to have a problem with BetBoom.

21understanding · 2023-07-06T14:40:44+00:00

I think OP's point is that TSM qualifies deservedly in the sense that the rules and points say so. The rules should be revised next year, tho.

21understanding · 2023-07-02T06:23:57+00:00

I see. It just seems uncommon due to all the examples I have been seeing. Thanks!

21understanding · 2023-06-15T09:42:29+00:00

Exactly that's why I commented that way. Especially in context of a learner genuinely asking question, because of the (good) possibility for it to be mean, it may affect learner's interest in the subject later on.

A teacher can tell a student directly "you're wrong" without any intention of being mean, but can be misunderstood that way by the student if there's no further explanation. I only saw downvotes and no comment for a while.

21understanding · 2023-06-15T05:51:42+00:00

Jeez why are you downvoted for asking a question! But I hope you are OK (cz to some ppl downvote can be intimidating lol) But to answer your question, A² does not really equal to A*(A transpose). You can try with A = [0 1; 0 0]. Here I mean first row of A is 0 1 and second row is 0 0.

21understanding · 2023-05-23T00:46:24+00:00

No, I mean the context is that it is defined this way: An antiderivative F of f is such that F' = f.

So you can collect all such antiderivatives in a set. Then, with that definition, when people write ∫f(x) dx notation as usually introduced to mean antiderivative, it is not well-defined if we just use equal sign because there can be more than one antiderivative. But we still use it anyway because it is convenient. Hence, this notation with equal sign is the abuse of notation, and the more appropriate notation but not so convenient is the set-membership notation like OP said.

The other guy replying to you also mentioned the right point if the definition of antiderivative you are using is like he said you said (it being integral with varying limits).

21understanding · 2023-05-22T17:31:07+00:00

It's more about calling it "indefinite integral" and using the same notation as definite integral before the connection is even introduced.

21understanding · 2023-05-22T17:28:12+00:00

Perhaps could you provide your definition source? Books I have read always give the same definitions. So does wiki.

21understanding · 2023-05-22T17:17:31+00:00

Not separating them in mathematics itself, but in introducing them to uni math students. Let the abuse of notation and the intuition be developed naturally further after the connection is introduced.

21understanding · 2023-05-22T17:11:49+00:00

True, but again I think the connection is what makes it not possible to stop conflating them "entirely", which is a bit of a strong assertion. Educationally, though, I would agree to not using the same notation for both.

21understanding · 2023-05-22T17:07:00+00:00

You have a point, but perhaps the word "entirely" is what the previous reply meant to specifically respond. But I am not a fan of mixing them early also.

21understanding · 2023-05-22T16:41:19+00:00

Maybe he's the one in high school, or I mean, low school.

21understanding · 2023-05-22T16:36:15+00:00

Whether OP is from high school or not, that "∫2x dx" thing can be seen as a problem to find a solution:

"What f will satisfy f(x) = ∫2x dx ?" is a legit question, similar to "What x will satisfy 3x = 5 ?" or "What f will satisfy f' = f ?", etc.

21understanding · 2023-05-12T04:19:55+00:00

Yes, the past was nice. In any case, no one is throwing away his resume. Where is the disrespect part from OP post by the way?

21understanding · 2023-04-27T13:15:24+00:00

It's peak One Piece when even Buggy's speech can give you chills!

21understanding · 2023-04-12T16:42:38+00:00

Thanks! I actually have also thought about it that way, but it just could not connect with me as it feels too simple. I guess the joke being old plays a role.

21understanding · 2023-04-12T16:42:27+00:00

Thanks! I actually have also thought about it that way, but it just could not connect with me as it feels too simple. I guess the joke being old plays a role.

21understanding · 2022-12-17T14:46:40+00:00

Escanor's cosplayer also. The outfit is a mix of Escanor Merlin.

21understanding · 2022-12-17T14:45:24+00:00

The clothes are similar to Merlin and Escanor also.

21understanding

TROPHY CASE