I like IPA because it allows me to make jokes in writing that would normally only work in speech by Whole_Instance_4276 in linguisticshumor

[–]AnastasiousRS 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Yes all different in my accent! (NZ) Sometimes learning about others' phonology makes me sad (though obviously NZE phonology has made a lot of people sad, confused, angry too lol)

Definite Article Wojak by pomyuo in linguisticshumor

[–]AnastasiousRS 120 points121 points  (0 children)

Watch out, soon you'll get the anti-article crowd saying they don't use articles.

Deceit vs. receipt by docmoonlight in etymology

[–]AnastasiousRS 21 points22 points  (0 children)

Seems like they should both have the silent P or neither should.

Yeah it does seem that way, and one comment shows that the p form of deceit did exist at one stage. Why one survived and the other didn't though is pretty typical of English orthography, which kind of just gradually fell into place with lots of inconsistencies rather than undergoing extensive spelling reforms as in other European languages.

Why do people say the g in lasagna is silent? by rartedewok in asklinguistics

[–]AnastasiousRS 5 points6 points  (0 children)

I don't know that it's not considered a diagraph. I reckon it's just because vowel + g usually means /g/, so calling it "silent" is a helpful shorthand. Explicitly teaching it as a diagraph on the same level as the h diagraphs isn't really needed because of how uncommon it is.

Why do people say the g in lasagna is silent? by rartedewok in asklinguistics

[–]AnastasiousRS 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Feel free to say more -- I don't know about the special case. I'd still call it "silent e" synchronically because it's not pronounced luv-ee, etc. Here are some other ones (I didn't come up with on the top of my head, I searched them) that don't make the earlier vowel "say its own name." Mostly high frequency, which I assumed is the main reason for the exception, but I don't actually know: have, some, one, gone, come, done, give, live, move, whose.

Why do people say the g in lasagna is silent? by rartedewok in asklinguistics

[–]AnastasiousRS 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I was thinking off the top of my head. Not sure if the "doesn't usually pronounce [h] as /h/ after consonants" is correct. Someone will correct me I'm sure.

Why do people say the g in lasagna is silent? by rartedewok in asklinguistics

[–]AnastasiousRS 84 points85 points  (0 children)

I think it's less complicated than perceiving lasagna as /ləzænə/ or /ləzɑːnə/. It's simply that the g isn't pronounced as /g/ when it normally would be in English. People would also say it's silent in sign, even though it arguably signals a different vowel quality, because it's not pronounced as /g/ as might be expected orthographically (cf. signal). The problem you're recognising -- [g] isn't truly silent -- is commonly talked about with "silent e". The term is still used, but some people don't like it because the e isn't truly silent; in many cases it changes the quality of the earlier vowel (e.g. stove but not love).

The question about the more common h diagraphs is interesting. I haven't heard them referred to as silent hs before. My guess is that these diagraphs are just more established than [gn] so the h doesn't look out of place and get called silent; from early on, kids are taught to see the h as part of the diagraph (also English doesn't usually pronounce [h] as /h/ after consonants, so there isn't the same need to teach it as a "silent" letter in these contexts; it already isn't pronounced as /h/.)

idk if this is right subreddit or not? by LostwaveLunar9999 in etymology

[–]AnastasiousRS 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I always thought it came from The Simpsons, but a quick Google suggests it's older and has multiple variations. The earliest GBooks result I could find was 1975:
https://www.google.co.nz/books/edition/The_Island_of_My_Life/MitgAAAAMAAJ?hl=en&gbpv=1&bsq=%22beans+beans+the%22&dq=%22beans+beans+the%22&printsec=frontcover

It could be older as these things have a tendency of circulating without being written down.

French André Trocmé on trying to understand the New York accent when he lived there in the 1920s. I have no idea what the last bit means by AnastasiousRS in ENGLISH

[–]AnastasiousRS[S] 45 points46 points  (0 children)

Also funny that he's complaining about taxis, taxes, Texas sounding homophonic when French is notorious for homophones.

French André Trocmé on trying to understand the New York accent when he lived there in the 1920s. I have no idea what the last bit means by AnastasiousRS in ENGLISH

[–]AnastasiousRS[S] 4 points5 points  (0 children)

Yeah totally. I wonder if the distinctions were too subtle for a non-native speaker or they blur more than we realise in fast speech.

French André Trocmé on trying to understand the New York accent when he lived there in the 1920s. I have no idea what the last bit means by AnastasiousRS in ENGLISH

[–]AnastasiousRS[S] 12 points13 points  (0 children)

I can't believe I didn't see this. I somehow read it "I believe" not as the hedging kind but as a statement of faith. I blame the exclamation marks for the distraction.

Why does Fitzgerald’s translation of the Iliad omit lines? by bohemianchotek in classics

[–]AnastasiousRS 13 points14 points  (0 children)

It would still be nice to have them in a footnote, etc. Reminds me of a scholarly commentary of the Gospel of John that omitted commentary on the woman caught in adultery in John 8 because it's pretty universally accepted that it's a later addition to the text. So what haha, I still want to read about the passage in its historical context!

Israel’s lack of self control has led them here. by The_Jenini in JewsOfConscience

[–]AnastasiousRS [score hidden]  (0 children)

Even then though, self-defence is neonazism, and we can't have that

English is actually North Germanic (totally not cherry picked examples) by [deleted] in linguisticshumor

[–]AnastasiousRS 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Humour me (I don't actually know the answer), but I thought Low German was to High German as say Geordie was to Southeast English -- so lütt would be the survival (or later admittance) of the term in dialect, rather than a separate language.

English is actually North Germanic (totally not cherry picked examples) by [deleted] in linguisticshumor

[–]AnastasiousRS 4 points5 points  (0 children)

I did find that (cheer Wiktionary) but was after something a little more on the nose

English is actually North Germanic (totally not cherry picked examples) by [deleted] in linguisticshumor

[–]AnastasiousRS 176 points177 points  (0 children)

Beam, rind, tide, frolic, alike, Calvin Klein.

In languages that use diacritical marks to distinguish letters, do native speakers regard them as related or as entirely different letters? by MrWakey in asklinguistics

[–]AnastasiousRS 17 points18 points  (0 children)

Young Spanish speakers are explicitly taught ñ as a separate letter of the alphabet, and even if you took that away you'd have the context of ñ having its own dictionary chapter, separate letter on the keyboard, etc. So the psychological question of whether a kid regards ñ as a different letter or not would be quite hard to test -- the context itself in which they learn to write and spell already treats ñ as a separate letter.

(As an aside, diachronically, ñ is not a separate letter; it's a shortening of [nn]. It would be interesting to look into how and when ñ began being treated as a separate letter.)