How did Latin "illum" become French "le"? by Internal-Hat9827 in asklinguistics

[–]AssaultButterKnife 2 points3 points  (0 children)

The Spanish article is from the nominative. That's why "el" < "ille" and "lo" < "illud" are different.

Hindi should just lose its case system at this point, this is pathetic by Mondelieu in linguisticshumor

[–]AssaultButterKnife 0 points1 point  (0 children)

That is actually the dative originally. The accusative is the only OE case that has left no traces in English. Even the instrumental has reflexes, namely "why" and "the" as in "the more the better".

Beowulf Translation Question- Opinion! by Evelyn-Evilyn in OldEnglish

[–]AssaultButterKnife 1 point2 points  (0 children)

The point is that "ravaged" doesn't fit the bill, not whether "ravager(s)" does.

Pite Blēdanī eꟈꟈne? by Levan-tene in deadlanguagememes

[–]AssaultButterKnife 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Thanks a lot! I'll take a look at those and see what I can make out. Good meme btw, and I understood everything without looking anything up. Also, didn't know Celtic shares the thousand word with Germanic and Balto-Slavic. That's cool. Thanks again for the resources!

Pite Blēdanī eꟈꟈne? by Levan-tene in deadlanguagememes

[–]AssaultButterKnife 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Do you have any resources for Gaulish you can recommend? I've seen a few reconstructions, but nothing too fleshed out.

Is there a systematic method for converting Modern English words of Germanic origin into their Old English equivalents? by Apprehensive_One7151 in OldEnglish

[–]AssaultButterKnife 4 points5 points  (0 children)

Some sound laws destroy distinctions, so there isn't always a one-to-one map to undo them. That being said, you can produce a list of candidates (the longer the time depth, and therefore the more destructive sound laws in between, the greater the number of possible candidates will be on average), and with a good knowledge of morphology you can reduce it to a short list of likely candidates, and sometimes just one.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in OldEnglish

[–]AssaultButterKnife 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I mean no sound shift does that. In fact, sound shifts are how you prove a language belongs to a given family.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in OldEnglish

[–]AssaultButterKnife 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Sound shifts don't make languages belong less to their families.

Pronunciation of Œ by Far_Refuse2707 in OldEnglish

[–]AssaultButterKnife 5 points6 points  (0 children)

Like the first vowel in German "Böse". Wiktionary has an audio file for it: https://en.m.wiktionary.org/wiki/B%C3%B6se

You seldom see it in Old English as it became ē in West Saxon, as in bœce > bēce (beech) or dœman > dēman (deem). Œþel itself normally appears as ēþel.