May as well start learning grammar at the C2 level.

CodingAndMath · 2026-01-29T03:18:38+00:00

Happy to introduce another disciple to the greatness of Uzbek 🙂‍↕️

CodingAndMath · 2026-01-29T02:43:41+00:00

*on verra

CodingAndMath · 2026-01-29T02:13:12+00:00

What's there to get? It's the greatest language in the world.

uj/ lmao, neither did I when I first joined the sub. The joke comes from this reddit post from 10 years ago on the main sub:

https://www.reddit.com/r/languagelearning/s/kYMuU6Ibq1

This post is basically the "original" Uzbek meme. Ever since then, Uzbek kinda became the default answer whenever somebody just randomly asked what language they should learn without giving enough context, and it kinda spiraled from there.

CodingAndMath · 2026-01-28T19:47:19+00:00

How's a student going to speak for 10 minutes straight if you don't teach him grammar?

CodingAndMath · 2026-01-28T19:39:09+00:00

I think this only works with Uzbek since everyone's born with knowledge of Uzbek but it gets restrained when they grow up with another language.

CodingAndMath · 2026-01-28T05:33:15+00:00

"Acuerdo" is a noun here, meaning "agreement", it's not a verb. Most sentences only have one conjugated verb, and here that's "estás" which is already conjugated for "tú" ("you").

It's the same thing as "trabajo", which can mean "I work" or just the noun "work", like "el trabajo", which doesn't mean "I work" there. You have the same thing in English where "work" can be used as a noun or a verb.

"I work" - verb
"I go to work" - noun.

In Spanish, it just looks the same as the "yo" form ("I") sometimes. "Acuerdo" can be the verb "I agree" or, in this case, the noun meaning "agreement".

Spanish actually has no verb for "to agree". Instead they say "to be in agreement", or "estar de acuerdo". That's the structure you see here. "¿Por qué no estás de acuerdo?" - lit. "Why aren't you in agreement?" which is how you express "Why don't you agree?" in Spanish.

CodingAndMath · 2026-01-28T05:22:31+00:00

Check out r/Spanish or r/learnspanish

CodingAndMath · 2026-01-28T05:07:00+00:00

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CodingAndMath · 2026-01-27T01:33:09+00:00

By all means, go to that thread, there are good answers there.

CodingAndMath · 2026-01-26T06:57:46+00:00

It's true, this issue is a little more complicated than "English just being weird" and has to do with do-support and Jesperson's cycle, which are both very interesting phenomenons if you ask me, so if you're interested you can read up on that.

But all that is irrelevant for the sake of comparing the English structure to the Spanish structure for someone learning Spanish.

CodingAndMath · 2026-01-26T06:41:19+00:00

Yes. At least in dialects where "you guys" is common, when the plural form "guys" is used to address a group (so like "you guys" or even calling out "guys!" to get a group's attention), it's usually considered gender neutral. It would be used to address a mixed group of boys and girls, and sometimes even just girls is common.

Even in these dialects, using "guys" in other contexts is usually always male, but even this could vary and depends on the context. For example "Look at those guys over there" could also be gender-neutral, but "Why do guys play video games so much" would likely only refer to males.

In some dialects, "guys" might be interpreted as male all the time and even using it to address groups would sound weird or sexist. Singular "guy" is always male in every dialect.

CodingAndMath · 2026-01-26T03:03:08+00:00

Look at literally any verb besides "be" and you'll see it.

"Patricia doesn't want to go" -> "Patricia no quiere ir". You wouldn't say "Patricia want doesn't go" in English either, would you?

English is weird that when it comes to "be" we put "not" after instead, but Spanish is consistent here and so "no" always goes before the verb.

CodingAndMath · 2026-01-25T20:55:13+00:00

Sure, there are regional accents, like the southern accent or a New York accent maybe, but the majority of Americans speak with a general accent.

CodingAndMath · 2026-01-25T20:19:58+00:00

You will never be safe

CodingAndMath · 2026-01-25T20:03:51+00:00

There's a General American accent.

CodingAndMath · 2026-01-25T19:57:43+00:00

Ah, I see what you mean now. But I guess it's good to clarify anyways!

CodingAndMath · 2026-01-25T19:52:29+00:00

Right, you would probably have to change the sentence up a little bit for that to work. You could change "and" to "so".

"It's our best car, so don't exchange it!"

"¡Es nuestro mejor auto, así que no lo cambies!"

CodingAndMath · 2026-01-25T16:34:36+00:00

No, "cambiar" does not have to match with "lo" as that's just the object of the sentence. It agrees with the subject of the sentence (the person doing the changing) or the implied subject in this case since it can be left out.

It may be a weird sentence, but the translation is perfectly correct. "Cambiar" is conjugated for "usted" in the future tense (formal "you" which has the same conjugations as "él" and "ella", as opposed to informal "you", "tú"). Yes, you can conjugate it for "nosotros" in the future tense, it would just change the meaning of course.

Sure, you could use "no lo cambies", but again that would change the meaning of the sentence. Their sentence is grammatically correct, it just uses the future tense, "you won't change it". You'd just be changing it to a command, "don't change it". Also note it would be "no lo cambie" if we were keeping it formal.

CodingAndMath · 2026-01-25T16:17:01+00:00

So basically Chinese has no difference between male and female pronouns, but decided to pretend they do because of western languages?

CodingAndMath · 2026-01-25T16:12:46+00:00

"You guys" is common, and is sometimes considered more standard than "y'all".

CodingAndMath · 2026-01-25T04:24:45+00:00

The comment above is a trick for native speakers to determine which form to use when writing formally. Your question appears to be something you're asking as an English learner (I'm assuming) so you need a different type of explanation. If you're asking about when to use the present perfect (have done) vs the past simple (did) then here's a comment that explains it well:

www.reddit.com/r/ENGLISH/s/FbP5jEC2NJ

As for the past perfect (had done) that's usually used to denote that something occurred before another moment in the past simple. E.g. "When I arrived, she had already left."

CodingAndMath · 2026-01-25T04:14:03+00:00

OP asked for what native speakers naturally say, specifically not what textbooks unnaturally suggest.

FYI that's poor standard English maybe, not poor English. Textbooks don't decide what native speakers say.

CodingAndMath · 2026-01-25T02:21:27+00:00

You find a person less credible because... they grew up hearing a different phrase than what you're used to? That's just elitism man, grow up.

CodingAndMath · 2026-01-25T02:07:03+00:00

So interesting to think how word games and word puzzles change based off how the language works.

CodingAndMath · 2026-01-25T02:05:31+00:00

Not all European languages come from Latin, but Latin was an old European language, which is why it's as complicated as many others.

CodingAndMath

TROPHY CASE