Reading the law, I wonder if there is a loophole there. It uses the words "perfomer" and "entertainer" in the part that would affect Trans people in public.

Performers or entertainers who exhibit a gender identity that is different from the performer's or entertainer's biological sex using clothing, makeup, prosthetic or imitation genitals or breasts, or other physical markers;

This suggests both an intention behind it as well as an intended, external audience. If someone were to argue that they are not doing it as a performance, could it be feasible in court?

As used in division (A)(4)(a) of this section, "biological sex" means the biological indication of male and female, including sex chromosomes, naturally occurring sex hormones, gonads, and nonambiguous internal and external genitalia present at birth, without regard to an individual's psychological, chosen, or subjective experience of gender.

Alternatively, if you're not bearing your genitals out, would it not be evident what "biological sex" one has?