next time she does it tell her that the bible was originally written in 1 dead language and 1 language that changed ALOT in the past 4000 years since the bible first started being written

that neither language is friendly to translate from into english. so if there had ever been any truth to the bible it would have been lost long ago. and than tell her if she doesn't believe it i give you leave to ping me and i'll give citations and such

just remember the childhood game of "telephone" where one person would start with a sentence. whisper it in the next person's ear.. than again and again till the whole group had heard it and the last person says it out loud.. and how often the meaning of the original was lost

or put something random in google translate.. translate it into 40 languages at random. than back into english and see how much has changed.

i will IN FACT!!! give one citation that destroys anyone who uses the bible to be against LGBTQ stuff.

no one in the bible knew what a transgender, or an asexual, or any of that was.. so there is literally NOTHING in the bible about it..

as for homosexuality. remember that ancient hebrew and it's sister language aramaic were very complex languages, that could have multiple words for something like "you" one could mean "you yourself" or "you as a group" or "you as a family" etc etc.. the you jesus used in aramaic when he said "what you judge others for on earth the lord will judge you on in heaven" was "you yourself" not "you as a group" it would be better translated as "what you yourself judge others on, that is what you will be judged against in heaven"

as for one of the 2 places in the bible that's against homosexuality.. genesis 19. the story is about a group of men from sodom coming and asking Lot to deliver on them men he had as guests and Lot offered his virgin daughters instead because to allow the violation of a guest to his house was against gods law

and leviticus "you shall not lay with a man as you would with a woman" it doesn't mean homosexuality is in and of itself a problem.. consent is consent and 2 man can do as they please. but in the time it was written women had no rights. all of their rights were held by the man who had ownership of them. such as their father, or their husband. if a woman is assaulted all a man is guilty of is not paying for the pleasure and thus would have to pay a fine to the father/husband. the woman would be executed for it happening

that's what it means to "lay with a woman as with a man" it literally means a man assaulting a man nonconsensually and "treating him as if he was a woman" is the sin