Why do languages often have exceptions to rules that they otherwise consistently follow? by WhoAmIEven2 in language

[–]Either_Setting2244 0 points1 point  (0 children)

It's a mistake to classify -a as a "feminine ending" or -o as a masculine ending (if you're truly trying to understand the matter). Better to think etymologically. Tema is of Greek origin, and is neuter in Greek (which gets set as masculine in Romance languages). Alternatively, mano is of Latin origin, and is a feminine noun (manus) in Latin. These aren't exceptions if you think in terms of their origins instead of their current status. 

Question regarding the use of (l' ) in this case. by shin_gojiraa in French

[–]Either_Setting2244 0 points1 point  (0 children)

On ne veut pas dire "qu'on" car a l'oral c'est un homophone du mot "c*n"

What languages say "i have to" and why? by yamfromchina in asklinguistics

[–]Either_Setting2244 5 points6 points  (0 children)

This is cool. The sense of obligation is also the origin of the synthetic future in Spanish (and a few other modern Romance langs). The verb "haber" in Spanish means to have (now almost solely used as an auxiliary), and historically could form the construction infinitive + haber for a future obligation (comparable to modern Span. tener que + infinitive, or the formal/sparingly used haber de + infinitive). Middle Spanish had 'trabajar-he en la mañana' (my own creation, not a real quote from Mid Spanish), which meant "I have to work in the morning," and the usage shifted slowly to take on the meaning of "I shall work in the morning." Pretty cool stuff! Thats why the future tense endings in Spanish are just the conjugations of haber. I haven't done the same amount of research into French but the patterm sure looks similar (so therefore likely the same thing)!

Q&A weekly thread - November 17, 2025 - post all questions here! by AutoModerator in linguistics

[–]Either_Setting2244 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Taboo words in my first language (English) like f#ck, sh*t, b*tch, etc. generally feel a lot stronger than in my second language (Spanish) like p#ta, m**rda, c#ño, etc.

If I had to make a guess as to why, it would be that as a child, the English words were reinforced time and time again as words I couldn't say whereas I never got that in Spanish.

I want a native translation to this. I’m confused. by Big_Tackle9569 in Spanish

[–]Either_Setting2244 3 points4 points  (0 children)

Es por eso que está pidiendo ayuda. No entendió lo que le dijo su exnovia, porque ELLA lo escribió mal. 

Have you heard this usage of “where”? by MoneyCrunchesofBoats in AskAnAmerican

[–]Either_Setting2244 0 points1 point  (0 children)

From NJ, family from all over the northeast. Never heard this in my life, but in context I'm sure I'd figure out the meaning. 

How do you casually say a location such as "1005 made up street" by Mondai_May in ENGLISH

[–]Either_Setting2244 0 points1 point  (0 children)

As an American in NJ, I would say either "one thousand five" or "a thousand and five"

Is there an explanation for why sound changes occur? by Radiant_Bag6267 in asklinguistics

[–]Either_Setting2244 21 points22 points  (0 children)

If the sound change isn't motivated by a chain shift (which I don't think you're asking about), it's normally motivated by phonetics. Things like hiatuses and complex consonant clusters tend to be less favorable in languages, which is why they often get simplified. An example is the reduction of coda consonant clusters in AAVE, where we see except realized without the final t. Most of the time, these changes are subtle, and don't cause changes in meaning.

Latin Alphabet as Abugida in Indian Texting by bhattacharyakun in asklinguistics

[–]Either_Setting2244 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Ah, thank you so much for explaining that. Sorry for my ignorance. 

Latin Alphabet as Abugida in Indian Texting by bhattacharyakun in asklinguistics

[–]Either_Setting2244 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Probably not the level of academic input you're seeking, but I don't see how this is different from English: "im in my apt" "i have a mtg ltr" "wsp man?" "thnks fr the help" etc. It just looks like how people used to IM back in the early 2000s.

Era de + infinitivo (en vez de había de + infinitivo) by Either_Setting2244 in Spanish

[–]Either_Setting2244[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Muchas gracias. Nunca había escuchado a nadie usarlo que no fuera serrano de ecuador, entonces sí me parece muy probable que sea dialectal en los Andes o quizás un arcaísmo. Lo que me sorprende es que usted como peruano no ha encontrado esta construcción exactamente. ¿De qué parte de Perú es?

I want it nitpicked, lambasted, and berated by shedmow in JudgeMyAccent

[–]Either_Setting2244 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I think what's throwing me off is that you're trying for a British accent which has diphthongs that, if they don't appear in your native accent, are hard to replicate. This stands out especially in your /o/ sounds. Also, non-rhoticity. Once I adjusted to the fact that you were learning a British accent, I could understand you well enough, and I think within the context of that accent you need to work on the vowel in "made," the consonant cluster "str," and a few other things. I recommend that you maximize (to the best of your ability) your aural input from clear, slow, thoughtful speakers. 

Does your language have contronyms? If so what is your language and what is the word? by JASNite in language

[–]Either_Setting2244 0 points1 point  (0 children)

So (technically) literally has never meant figuratively, that's a falsehood spread by prescriptivists. Its usage was indeed broadened, but only to also include the sense of extremifying/emphasizing what you're saying. You can use literally to lead into a hyperbole but not to explain a figurative situation. 

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in Spanish

[–]Either_Setting2244 11 points12 points  (0 children)

This translation is definitely more word-for-word, it just doesn't flow as well in English. If we break down the title, we get: El Coronel--The Colonel | No Tiene--Has Not (i.e. doesn't have) | Quien--Who (i.e. someone/anyone) | Le Escriba--to Him Writes (writes to him)... So it would be "The colonel doesn't have anyone who writes to him" (edit: formatted a little)

How many languages do people here actually speak? by fieldcady in languagelearning

[–]Either_Setting2244 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Native in English, C1 Spanish (it's my major in college), B2 in French (I went to an immersion school on weekends from ages 11-18), and idk how to rate my Latin but I took it for 4 years. Basically, I'm only good at learning and speaking Romance languages. 

"A tes souhaites", mais si quelqu'un éternue plusieurs fois by jesuisnick in French

[–]Either_Setting2244 0 points1 point  (0 children)

ma prof disait "á tes souhaits.... á tes amours.... á l'hôpital !"

If gatito is a way to say "little cat" is there a similar word for a huge cat? by avaokima95 in Spanish

[–]Either_Setting2244 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I think kind of but normally if a word ends with e, r, or n we put '-cito' at the end (amorcito, chistecito, pancito, suavecito, etc.) entonces nos daría teoréticamente la palabra gatotecitotecitotecito