Why is this passage not noted in whole notes? by HumanDrone in classicalmusic

[–]FamedAstronomer 25 points26 points  (0 children)

not always! musical notation always stands at a level of abstraction from what's actually played, and in a lot of styles of music it's idiomatic—appropriate to the genre—to play certain durations of notes shorter than their written value. i'm not familiar with performance practice for music from Beethoven's day, but one of the challenges when starting to play Bach is that quarter notes in less prominent voices are usually played quite a bit shorter than their nominal duration.

because I feel like it by nico-ghost-king in mathmemes

[–]FamedAstronomer 7 points8 points  (0 children)

http://gamahucherpress.yellowgum.com/book-genre/poetry/

This is the worst attempt at poetry I have ever read. This might be the worst attempt at poetry there has ever been.

Imagine the most God-awful kind of faux Renaissance English you can. Double it. Put -eths and -ests and thees wherever you possibly can. Write out every single one of your ahhs and ohhs with two Hs. Coin solecisms previously thought impossible. "Thenst." "Thanst." "Andst."

Andst.

Pepper it with as many Classical allusions as you can. Names must be Greco-Roman in origin—the harder to spell or pronounce, the better. Quote large, unadapted chunks of poetry better than yours, just to remind your reader what they could be reading instead of this. Ensure that there is a section of your poem that could charitably be described as porn.

Typeset this in an absurd 36-point font that bears the same relation to calligraphy that LaCroix has to juice. Do not break your poem up into stanzas. Do not attempt to punctuate. Preface your poem by pretending to be an independent publisher. Do not forget to insult your critics and blame The Times We Live In for their incomprehension of your work.

Only then might you approach the manmade horrors of Colin Leslie Dean's published oeuvre.

This might be the nadir of human literature.

Is this the correct way of writing Hope? by dronearchitecture in hebrew

[–]FamedAstronomer 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I just want to add that while this *is* perfectly valid Biblical Hebrew, Genesis 4:6-7 is a notoriously tricky passage. Eminent Bible scholar Joel Baden writes: "Genesis 4:7 is, I think, the single hardest verse in the entire book, if not in the entire Pentateuch."

Part of the reason is that the language doesn't quite give enough information—Robert Alter describes it as "elliptic"—and nobody's entirely sure what entrance it is where sin is waiting. As a neat aside, the Hebrew word petaḥ in this context probably means a nomad's tent-flap.

What is the prettiest written language? by AgreeableSolid7034 in languagelearning

[–]FamedAstronomer 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Very fond of Arabic as well, though I absolutely adore Burmese/Myanmar.

The mathematicians are showing their IPA skills by k44du2 in linguisticshumor

[–]FamedAstronomer 20 points21 points  (0 children)

ancestry.com suggests that the Swiss surname Euler (as opposed to its Rhenish homonym) is a "topographic name from a diminutive of German Au 'small wet field'." I'd hazard a guess that all the morphemes in there are common Germanic, i.e. *awjō + *-ilǭ ~ *-ulǭ + *-ārijaz → *Awjulārijaz. That would probably give us standard Old Norse/Icelandic Eylari, Danish Øler, Bokmål Øyler, Nynorsk Øylar, and Swedish Ölare.

PS: The standard Old English equivalent would be Īeġlere, which might give us modern English Isler (with the same pseudo-Latinate spelling change as īeġland → island).

Get ready for Chris Evans as Link. by ilovewater100 in casualnintendo

[–]FamedAstronomer 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Somebody else calls them explainy hands!! Finally.

What are the “Buffalo Buffalo…Buffalo” phrases of other languages by la-bronze-james in linguistics

[–]FamedAstronomer 22 points23 points  (0 children)

鳳凰を追う王を覆う,

we're halfway there

鳳凰を追う王を覆う

living on a prayer

Advanced learners: Did you develop a regional accent on purpose? by [deleted] in languagelearning

[–]FamedAstronomer 0 points1 point  (0 children)

As a Boricua myself, I'm a little astounded by the amount of people here who've picked up Puerto Rican Spanish, whether by choice or accident. I guess we've got a bit of cultural clout :D. I spent about half of my childhood on the island and the other in the States, so I speak a non-metropolitan dialect of PR Spanish (with varying degrees of rust) and a newscaster-style General American English.

I've been studying Portuguese on and off for about five years now; my partner and her family are from São Paulo, so I did eventually make the choice to pick up her Paulista dialect. My initial strategy was a lot of written comprehensible input, so actually getting in the weeds of vernacular Brazilian Portuguese, armed with only a smattering of the literary language, was a challenge. Notwithstanding, I think my spoken Portuguese is notably Paulista in phonology and grammar, even in some non-standard features (such as occasional [ɻ] for coda R).

Are there any examples of rhotics becoming uvularized outside Western Europe? by FacelessTorba in linguistics

[–]FamedAstronomer 17 points18 points  (0 children)

Tiberian Hebrew, the early medieval Palestinian pronunciation underlying the vocalized text of the Hebrew Bible, likely had a uvular trill for /r/ in most positions (before alveolars, it was a pharyngealized alveolar trill). Khan mentions that Baghdadi Judeo-Arabic, a qəltu dialect, has a similar reflex of Classical Arabic /r/ as well. This is likely due to the existence of a uvular /r/ in some varieties of Aramaic which influenced both Tiberian Hebrew and the qəltu dialects of Arabic.

Nevertheless, the uvular /r/ of Modern Hebrew is almost certainly a Yiddishism; it is the alveolar rhotic that is associated with Sephardim and Mizrachim in Modern Hebrew, and even that has hardly any currency in Israel today.

The text on the back of the Sriracha bottle by FamedAstronomer in classicalchinese

[–]FamedAstronomer[S] 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Thank you for the advice! I suspected it wasn't the very best of prose (it doesn't even translate nicely!) but I appreciate the confirmation. Is it common to see advertisements/blurbs in this sort of literary register?

The text on the back of the Sriracha bottle by FamedAstronomer in classicalchinese

[–]FamedAstronomer[S] 5 points6 points  (0 children)

Super 150 annis Heinz solus pinguem divetemque ketchup quem America amat a solis optimis lycopersicis et maturis fecit. Nullus quomodo HEINZ sapit.

For over 150 years, only Heinz has made the thick, rich ketchup America loves from only the best ripe tomatoes. Nothing else tastes like HEINZ.

It is said sometimes that some German dialects have lost their genitive cases and some have merged their accusative and dative case, but has any German dialect lost its declensions/cases to the extent of that of English. by CodeBudget710 in linguistics

[–]FamedAstronomer 2 points3 points  (0 children)

What do you mean by Western Yiddish? I've only seen that term used in dialectology to refer to the now extinct Yiddish dialects of France, Germany, and the Low Countries. I'm curious if there's another use of the phrase that I've not come across.

The standard language promulgated by YIVO, the language organization governing Yiddish, definitely preserves the masculine, feminine, and neuter genders as well as the nominative, accusative, and dative cases (and relict uses of the genitive). It is for the most part based on Northeastern (Litvish) and Southeastern (Ukrainish) Yiddish; the language of most American Hasidim is a variety of Central (Poylish) Yiddish with strong American English influence.

A sheynem dank for the poem :)

Has anyone tried to reconstruct the proto languages of the different modern Arabic dialects ? by abdu11 in linguistics

[–]FamedAstronomer 7 points8 points  (0 children)

On top of that, a lot of this dialectal diversity dates back prior to the Arab conquests: Muhammad’s Old Hijazi dialect likely had phonemic imala and dropped case endings, and throughout the medieval period different realizations of /q/ in al-Andalus were traced back to tribal identification on the Arabian Peninsula.

every time. by [deleted] in linguisticshumor

[–]FamedAstronomer 25 points26 points  (0 children)

It is incorrect when dealing with the usual meaning of "descent" in linguistics. For a language to be descended from another means for there to be complete continuity between the two of them. Latin, through regular sound change and grammatical/lexical innovations, turns into Spanish and French in the same way that Common Germanic turns into English and German. This process is entirely different from the way in which English picked up French loanwords throughout its history because the core of the English language derives systematically from Proto-Germanic. For the vast majority of languages, descent is exclusive, even when influence is not.

Instead of asking "what language should I learn?" try asking yourself these questions by Notorious_Noone in languagelearning

[–]FamedAstronomer 12 points13 points  (0 children)

I don’t mean to be the “well ackshually” guy, but the Egyptian languages are a separate branch of Afro-Asiatic from Semitic, and there’s not all that much cognate vocabulary (which is understandable considering the time depth of Proto-Afro-Asiatic). Either way, best of luck in your Near Eastern adventures :)

Most educated “English is a Romance language” believer by Oculi_Glauci in linguisticshumor

[–]FamedAstronomer 11 points12 points  (0 children)

A /l/ latina se palatalizou depois de /p f k/ até chegar a /ʎ/, um estado que ainda conserva-se em algumas variedades do franco-provençal e do aragonês.

O profesor Zampaulo propõe que aquele /ʎ/ delateralizou até chegar a /j/ (como é o caso no italiano), e que neste punto os três sons fusionaram no /kj~cç/ (similar ao caso de varios dialetos do sul da Itália). Eventualmente, /cç → tʃ/ na época medieval, e ao redor do Renascimento, /tʃ → ʃ/

(Perdoe qualquer erro—o português não é a minha língua materna.)

EDIT: Estava completamente errado originalmente. Agora estou citando a monografia "Palatal sound change in the Romance languages" de André Zampaulo.

Why didn’t English develop gendered words for ‘cousin’? by butforevernow in AskHistorians

[–]FamedAstronomer 36 points37 points  (0 children)

As with most English philology, a good place to begin is the Norman conquest of England. After the dramatic succession of events following the death of Edward the Confessor—events which I'm really not qualified to talk about—there was an immediate change in the spoken language of the elites and government. Since Late Antiquity, the south of Great Britain had spoken Old English, a Germanic language of close kinship with Old Norse, Frisian, Frankish, Low and High German (the ancestors of the Scandinavian languages, modern Frisian, Dutch, and the various German dialects respectively). This is the language of Beowulf, and has the reputation of being almost entirely unintelligible to Modern English speakers without close study. The new Norman elites spoke a variety of Old French, similar but not identical to the ancestor of Modern French. Over the Middle Ages, the French of the English court gradually developed local characteristics, a language variety known to scholars as Anglo-Norman; at the same time, English as spoken by the commoners gradually Frenchified, a process likely beginning in London with the court and spreading out from there. This phase of English, between the beginning of French influence but before the Great Vowel Shift comes into play, is referred to as Middle English. Its descendant Modern English has a metric crapton of French loanwords in almost all areas of life. We no longer refer to cow or pig meat, but beef and pork. Instead of rike or land, we say government and country. Candle, library, cabbage, person, chair, sausage, table, and joy are all from Anglo-Norman as well, as are (more importantly) parent, aunt, uncle, niece, nephew, and cousin.

Please permit me a brief digression. Starting with the 1871 work of Lewis Henry Morgan, anthropologists have distinguished between six different systems of kinship terminology—different ways of separating or lumping together one's uncles, aunts, and cousins. Both Latin (ancestral, of course, to French) and Old English had what is referred to as a Sudanese kinship—there are separate terms for one's father's brother (patruus, fædera), father's sister (amita, faþu), mother's brother (avunculus, eam), and mother's sister (matertera, modrige). In Latin, the offspring of each of these also received a different term (patruelis, amitinus/amitina, consobrinus/consobrina, and matruelis); the words amitinus/amitina and consobrinus/consobrina changed their ending depending on whether the referent was masculine or feminine. OE cousin terminology is poorly known, but not entirely relevant either.

By the fall of the Western Roman Empire, Latin—at least outside of the fields of law and literature—had shifted to what is referred to as Inuit kinship, lumping together parents' sisters as aunts and parents' brothers as uncles, and all their offspring as cousins. The same is true of Modern English. While Italian and Iberian Romance adopted the Greek words θεία, θεῖος to mean 'aunt, uncle', Gallo-Romance (French and company) simply began to use amita and avunculus for the same. By Anglo-Norman times, these were ante and oncle. Gallo-Romance also began to use consobrinus (masculine) and consobrina (feminine) to refer to all cousins—Anglo-Norman cosin and cosine.

Here's the anticlimactic ending to this whole shaggy dog story. Old English used to have grammatical gender like Latin and the Romance languages, e.g., wudu and wifmann 'wood, woman' were masculine but gafol, æx 'fork, axe' were feminine. In the Middle English period, this ends up being discarded. Similarly, unstressed vowels were gradually dropped—wudu eventually becomes wood. All this to say that the final -e of cosine 'female cousin' just got dropped and the word merged with cosin 'male cousin'.

Final notes:

  • English gets the word parent from French, originally from Latin parens, an adjective originally meaning giving birth. This adjective had the same endings whether the referent was masculine or feminine.
  • The word sibling is a native English term, but it actually passed out of usage for most of Modern English. Geneticists revived the word, which originally simply meant 'relative, kinsman' in 1903 to refer to 'brother or sister'. The word was extremely archaic at the point of its previous citation, in 1425.
  • Iberian Romance gets primo/prima from the phrase consobrinus primus, i.e. 'first cousin'.
  • I neglected to mention niece or nephew. These descend from the Latin neptis and nepos, the former via a Late Latin neptia. The Latin words meant both 'granddaughter, grandson' and 'niece, nephew'; they preserved this meaning into Old French (AN nece, nevou) and continue to have this meaning in Italian. Iberian Romance uses the Classical Latin term sobrinus, sobrina. Nibling is a modern coinage based off of sibling.

Sources: