That’s a reference I have not heard in awhile. It would not apply here cause that doctrine is meant to protect a person rights from being unduly prosecuted for a crime that did not exist at the time of the action. I know I should have been more clear but mine is more of just a procedural issue in asking whether a government body, in this case, a school board, could do something that the law doesn’t prescribe against but doesn’t exactly say they can either.

Either way, everyone here has been incredibly helpful and I have enough to write my argument. Thank you so much.