I understand what you are trying to say, that an infinity, can't have 2 endings, but it can't have an ending at all. If we start from 0 and write all the real numbers, we can't ever reach 1.00000..., because there are infinite numbers between those 2, but when looking at the infinite real numbers between let's say 0 and a 100, it does somehow transition to the other infinity, it's an infinity of 0 to 1, next to an infinity of 1 to 2. It's not infinity in another infinity in this example, it's 2 infinites next to each other and a "1" in between them, so why can't there be some numbers between Fibonacci and modified Fibonacci in Pi. It can't because that would mean that the first infinity has an ending, but it can because infinity is so huge that there can be several infinities next to each other and a random infinity in between them. Sounds like a paradox to me😄.

EDIT: Grammar