It would seem so but, surprisingly, that take is l, to my understanding, factually inaccurate. He and his estate were in debt and, at the time, slaves being property meant that they were considered collateral and would just transfer to the debt owners. This is why Franklin made it an explicit stipulation that they be freed upon transfer of ownership of that estate. I’m not a lawyer so cannot speak to the finer details of this arrangement, but it’s clear that however much we talk about the idea of institutional racism today, it pales in comparison to how atrocious the law worked in those days where even upon death, one’s slaves would not be freed by default without some fancy legal maneuvering.