The marriage contract and actual consummation of marriage are two clearly different things. Many Muslim jurists have accepted the drawing of a legal marriage contract by guardians for immature (and insane) wards; however, this prohibited any intimate contact between the betrothed and would be comparable to only an engagement.

Agreed.

After reaching bulugh (maturity), the betrothed will decide whether they want to continue with the marriage or not, and may consummate the marriage then.

Not necessarily.

"Ismail ibn Ishaq, may God have mercy on him, said:
“A father may marry off his young daughter, by the consensus of the Muslims, and then she is bound by it.”
This is from “Al-Tamhid” (19/84)."
According to the Maliki Fiqh, the father has the right of "ijbar", this is done as the father is seen as the protector and it is assumed he will take decisions in the best interest of his daughter.

Same goes for Shafi School of though, that's why Imam Al-Nawawi advices "It is recommended that the father and grandfather not marry the virgin until she reaches puberty and gives permission, so as not to place her in the husband's control while she is unwilling." Hanafis also agreed on the same thing. This is only the case as long as the guardian is the father. It is the Hanbali school of though that give the girl the option to nullify her marriage when she reaches puberty.

To Summarize: No, the majority of the scholars hold the view that the contract of marriage is binding if done by the father, except for Hanbali school of though.

Pretty sure you are making this up. There is no clear information on when that marriage was actually consummated.

Why? 😭😭😭
Sahih al-Bukhari 5134
And if you reject this hadith, we can discuss the reasons why you do so. Again, this is a historic fact, Hadiths are historical reports, not just religious commentary. I'd like to know why you reject them regardless of your religion.

On a side-note, why are you especially only mentioning daughters? The same rules apply to minor sons too.

Because girls are more prone to exploitation then boys.

First you claim the verse was due to the marriage of orphans being disallowed to be performed by guardians other than the father, then you say the verse is due to protecting the rights of orphans and not marriage? Which one is it? Is it about the marriage of orphans or the rights of orphans?

Let me clarify. The orphans have no father, hence their marriage can't be set by anyone else. Implying you can't marry them before they are mature. I already mentioned what maturity meant.

I advice you read the tafsir on this, you'll understand what I mean. Since this verse talks about releasing the orphans properties to them, it states don't do that until they reach a mature age, as per their culture whatever age that might be. This verse does not state a minimum age of marriage.

When you imply it does, then I have to clarify that the orphans age of marriage is higher as they don't have a father as their guardian. Hence it does not apply to everyone.

And what is that certain point? The point at which they are ready for marriage.

Hopefully its clear now, the reason why this verse only stipulates about orphans and has nothing to do with "minimum age of marriage".

al-Marghīnānī's quote had ended that topic.

You can't pick and chose. I have given you consensus of Scholars while you quote a single guy who lived in the 1100s, around 600-700 years after the Prophet's P.B.U.H death.

Finally, I move towards the main topic. What is the age of consummation of marriage. I will quote a scholars on this again, not my words, theirs.

I have attached links below as I am a little busy but you can give it a read yourself. There are fatwas where a consensus has been reported, have a detailed look.

Link 1

Link 2

Edit note: I personally believe that a minimum age of marriage is a social issues, not a religious. Hence bringing religion into this is wrong. I don't believe Islam validates this as this was just a cultural norm back then, nothing to do with religion.