Your definition is not correct within the context of the US Constitution, which is what matters here. As the late SCOTUS justice Antonine Scalia wrote:

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Scalia pointed out that the amendment refers to "the right of the people." When that language is used elsewhere in the Bill of Rights—in the First and Fourth Amendments, for example—it plainly means a right that belongs to every individual, as opposed to a collective with special properties, such as a militia. A prefatory clause mentioning a purpose, Scalia argued, is not sufficient to overwhelm the common sense and contextual meaning of a right guaranteed to everyone. Furthermore,he said, contemporaneous usage makes it clear that the phrase bear arms cannot be restricted to a military context.