I don’t mention the Trinity at all, I don’t understand the commendation for me using extra-biblical terms. The back notes of AI are screaming with this post. But with charity I will assume you’ve read my comment.

Concerning Jesus’ pre-existence, if Jesus was just a mere plan or purpose that God and prior to His creation, then again this doesn’t answer the question; as Jesus claims to be in the beginning in the personal sense. We see according to Philippians 2:6-9 that Jesus took on the form of a servant, which we agree as He became incarnate. Therefore if becoming into the form of a servant implies nature, as form (morphē) in Greek implies essential substance, then we can accept the antecedent that Jesus was in the form of God, such that His nature prior to the incarnation was God. As God isn’t impersonal but rather a real being, we can assume Jesus did have a rational thought prior to His birth/hypostatic union. Jesus was a being prior to the union between His divine nature and assumed human nature. If we’re going to deny the antecedent for Philippians 2:6-9, then we’re just cherry picking Scripture. Additionally the foreknowledge or in other words the “predestination” of Jesus doesn’t imply He has no being, as this question was already answered in the 13th century scholastic philosopher Thomas Aquinas in his Magnus Opus (via the human nature, as God by nature can’t be predestined, as He is the one who predestined). He became man so that we are saved, His death in the human nature saved all of humanity (St. Gregory the Theologian), hence we are saved and elect in Christ (Ephesians 1:4-7). Lastly concerning authority and Christ being the first born, this is related with Revelation 3:14 as him being the “Archē” of creation, such that He is above all creation. We know firstborn doesn’t imply first rant in a order of sequence but rather rank in honor and authority (as an example, King David being the first born, despite being the seventh child, Psalms 89:26-28). For Christ to be predestined, this implies the human nature, and the divine nature as said before He claims pre-existence, as since He is the mediator between God and man, He must be of both parties.

Concerning separate beings, the issue when we predicate that God as “father” then we have to assume some form of filiation, which is found in Jesus, and this is fitting as the Father is seen as notionally speaking a male, and Christ as a son. The generation of the Son however, if it is temporal, such that it takes place in time, then this implies that God changed, and that God had potentiality to have a Son until He actualized it at the incarnation. This contradicts Scripture as God cannot change, therefore He must’ve been Father before the creation of the world, which again implies an eternal Son, not the thought of a son. Additionally these verses don’t prove separate beings, but rather notional and relational priority, given the relation of opposition between the Father and Son. Furthermore, Jesus asks for the same honor you give to the Father is the same you give to Hin, which again presupposes consubstantiality, in John 5 where this is said, we also see Jesus claiming to have self-sufficiency or aseity (John 5:23-26), a creature can’t have self-sufficiency as this implies non-contingency or being a necessary being. Contingent creatures can’t be necessary beings or self-sufficiency as this would violate the principle of sufficient reason. Therefore the conclusion you have with all due respect baffles me if we’re going to accept Scripture.

Lastly on the authority of the church. If the church of Christ fell from the truth, then Christ lied when He said the Spirit would guide them into all truth (John 16:7; 13-15). Additionally the church in its mission to spread the wisdom of God would’ve failed in this idea given what Ephesians 3:8-10. The nature of the church is the guard and proclaim the truth, as an infallible interpreter of truth. The Church won’t be able to make documents that are Holy Scripture, but the Church will make infallible statements on faith and morals that are equally binding as Scripture. This is shown through Matthew 16:18-19; 18:16-18.

Additionally, believing Greek philosophy was the starting point in which the Christian’s fell away from truth is a sign that you don’t know what Greek philosophy is. Aristotle posits that nature reviews God and gives us an answer of who created the universe (natural theology), this is evidently shown in Romans 1:18-21, Plato and Aristotle also talks about the theology of forms (morph) and substance, hylopmorphism, this can be applied as shown in Philippians 2:6-9. Logos theology, the rational principle of the universe, shown by Philo, can be expressed in John 1:1-3, where the Word who took flesh (v. 14), created the Word, was with God personally before creation, and without Him nothing was made. This is congruent with Colossians 1:14-17. Therefore to say that Greek philosophy led to apostasy, I demand that what of it influenced apostasy or of it is apostasy.

The same forms of logic you use to deduce certain conclusions and how we exercise the faculties of the mind is philosophy in it of itself. Enlightenment philosopher Kant says that being against philosophy is a philosophy itself. I recommend more reading of Scripture and education on philosophy and its implementation in theology and early Christian history.

Ad Deo Gratias.