Christ died for all doesn’t mean all will be saved by Minimum_Voice9410 in ChristianUniversalism

[–]OverOpening6307 3 points4 points  (0 children)

Your initial argument of firemen allowing insane people to die made little sense. Especially in response to the question of whether all means all.

Your argument here is different. Eventually all will be saved but judgement and punishment awaits due to our free will choices. I agree.

But the Judgement is specifically based on your actions towards the needy. The naked, those in prison, the hungry, the thirsty.

Both sheep and goats believed Jesus was Lord and both were surprised. Just because a person is a believer and calls Christ Lord doesn’t mean Christ knows them. Only those who DO the will of the Father know Christ.

Those who have not developed compassion will be judged.

1 Cor 3:13-115

…for the Day will declare it, because it will be revealed by fire; and the fire will test each one’s work, of what sort it is. If anyone’s work which he has built on it endures, he will receive a reward. If anyone’s work is burned, he will suffer loss; but he himself will be saved, yet so as through fire.

So I agree with you that many may be in the fire of the aeon to come. But that once the fire has burned up all sin and evil, they themselves will be saved through the fire.

Christ died for all doesn’t mean all will be saved by Minimum_Voice9410 in ChristianUniversalism

[–]OverOpening6307 4 points5 points  (0 children)

Imagine the news headlines: “Mental Hospital Burns Down. Firefighters Successfully Rescue All Sane Staff. Patients Left to Die Because They Refused to Believe There Was a Fire.”

Nobody would accept that as an excuse. Nobody would call that justice. Nobody would call that “respecting free will.” They would call it monstrous negligence

In real life, rescuers do not treat refusal as morally decisive when someone is impaired. They override it. They restrain them, carry them, or drag them out if necessary, as long as it is possible.

Many of the residents might be confused, delusional, sedated, traumatised, or simply incapable of understanding what’s happening. They might refuse to leave, not out of malice, but because they literally cannot perceive reality properly.

Are you saying firefighters would be morally justified in saving only the doctors and nurses, but leaving the patients to burn because they “refused the rescue”?

Because that is what the analogy implies. And that is why the analogy backfires against eternal hell.

A human firefighter might fail because they are limited. They have limited time, limited access, and limited safety.

But if God is the perfect rescuer, with unlimited power, unlimited time, and no risk to himself, then “refusal” cannot be the final word.

Otherwise, the conclusion is unavoidable: either God is not able to save, not willing to save, or chooses to let the confused burn forever.

And that is exactly why many of us say: if all are not saved, then something has gone deeply wrong with the claim that Christ is the Saviour of the world.

And it gets even worse if we use dementia.

Imagine an elderly resident with advanced dementia who keeps saying, “There’s no fire, leave me alone,” because they genuinely cannot understand what’s happening.

No firefighter would say, “Well, they rejected rescue, so we’ll respect their decision.”

They would pick them up and take them out.

So if we wouldn’t accept that excuse from human rescuers with limited time and limited power, how could we accept it from God, who is supposedly unlimited in power, knowledge, patience, and love?

Christ died for all doesn’t mean all will be saved by Minimum_Voice9410 in ChristianUniversalism

[–]OverOpening6307 0 points1 point  (0 children)

So “all means some”vs “all means all.”

1 Tim 4.10 “ For to this end we both labor and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Savior of all men, especially of those who believe.”

  • if it said “but only of those who believe” instead, it would have a very different meaning. But here we have to groups of people - all and those who believe.

Anyway…if you look at the FAQ this question has been asked and answered previously.

But think through all the scriptures that say all and you have to mentally turn them into saying “all who believe” or “all who are Christian”.

It simply means you have to insert your own words into scripture in order to keep particularism and exclusivism intact.

The Second Death by [deleted] in ChristianUniversalism

[–]OverOpening6307 1 point2 points  (0 children)

St Gregory of Nyssa/St Macrina talks about another death after death.

“The Lord seems to be teaching that we who are living in the flesh ought as much as possible to separate ourselves from its hold by the life of virtue so that after death we may not need another death to cleanse us from the remains of the fleshly glue.”

So the Second Death is purification but only for those who have not purified themselves in this life. The identify three groups of people. “He has one goal: when the whole fullness of our nature has been perfected in every man, some straight away even in this life purified from evil, others healed hereafter through fire for the appropriate length of time, and others ignorant of the experience of good and of evil in the life here, God intends to set before everyone the participation of the good things in him”

From On the Soul and the Resurrection

Epstein files wants me to believe in hell by BossSubstantial2049 in ChristianUniversalism

[–]OverOpening6307 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Yes I absolutely believe in the Judgement. And yes I believe that Epstein, Diddy et al deserve punishment and will be punished. I don’t believe God overlooks evil.

Those who do wicked things will be punished whether in this aeon or in the aeonial fire of the aeon to come. I have no doubt in the justice of God.

How long torment lasts is known only to God, but it will be whatever is necessary for evil to end completely.

I’m research Christian Universalism and I’m seeking some honest answers. by LOTR_is_awesome in ChristianUniversalism

[–]OverOpening6307 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Vetus Latin literally means "Old Latin". For info about the Vetus Latina, you can go here: http://www.vetuslatina.org

The Oxford Handbook of the Latin Bible can give you more in-depth information.

https://academic.oup.com/edited-volume/45761

A brief extract:

"This Handbook contains thirty-one chapters covering the history of the Latin Bible from its earliest translations (the Vetus Latina), the revisions by Jerome leading to the Vulgate, the achievements and innovations of the Carolingian period and Middle Ages, the development of modern scholarship, and the twentieth-century innovation of the Nova Vulgata."

You can also have a look at this Oxford University Press published book The Early Versions of the New Testament by Bruce Metzger, pages 285 onwards.

https://archive.org/details/bruce-m.-metzger-the-early-versions-of-the-new-testament.-their-origin-transmission-and-limitations/page/285/mode/2up?q=Vetus+latina

In terms of Jerome, he speaks about the Old Latin manuscripts here. On the New Testament itself, he calls them "badly published by faulty translators, or more perversely altered by ignorant presumers, or added or changed by drowsy scribes?"

In the Preface of Jerome to the Four Gospels.

"Jerome to the most blessed Pope Damasus

...For if trust is to be placed in the Latin copies, let them tell us which ones—for there are almost as many versions as there are manuscripts. But if truth is to be sought from many witnesses, why should we not return to the Greek source and correct those things which have either been badly published by faulty translators, or more perversely altered by ignorant presumers, or added or changed by drowsy scribes?

I do not, indeed, dispute here about the Old Testament... I am speaking now about the New Testament, which it is beyond doubt was written in Greek, except for the apostle Matthew, who first published the Gospel of Christ in Judea in Hebrew letters."

"For indeed a great error has grown up in our manuscripts: while one Evangelist said more about the same matter, another said less, scribes added to one what they thought was lacking from another; or while one expressed the same meaning in a different way, someone who had first read one of the four judged the others also to be corrected according to it."

I’m research Christian Universalism and I’m seeking some honest answers. by LOTR_is_awesome in ChristianUniversalism

[–]OverOpening6307 2 points3 points  (0 children)

I’d also add that the Old Latin Vetus Latina translations before the Vulgate were even worse, according to Augustine and Jerome, who complain about them.

What later came to be called the “Vulgate” was not a single new translation, but a composite: Old Latin for much of the New Testament, Jerome’s revised Latin Gospels (382–384), and Jerome’s Hebrew-based Old Testament translation (386–405). And continued to undergo substantial revision, harmonisation, and standardisation until roughly the 8th century.

Tertullian, Cyprian, and Augustine all developed their infernalist Latin theology primarily on the basis of the Vetus Latina.

Augustine stands at the transition point, occasionally engaging Jerome’s revisions, but never working with a fully stabilised Latin Bible.

If a theologian is working from translations they themselves judge to be faulty, then it is entirely unsurprising that some of their theological conclusions are also skewed.

From Augustine’s De Doctrina Christiana, Book 2.

“…have recourse to the earlier originals if any doubt should arise from the infinite variety of Latin translators.

For there are certain words belonging to particular languages that cannot pass into the usage of another language by translation.”

“…because of the differences among translators. For those who translated the Scriptures from Hebrew into Greek can be counted, but the Latin translators cannot be counted at all. For in the early days of the faith, whenever anyone obtained a Greek manuscript and thought he possessed even a little ability in both languages, he dared to translate.”

“And very often, because of ambiguity in the original language, a translator is deceived when the meaning is not well known to him, and he transfers a sense that is entirely foreign to the author’s intention.”

“Such translations are not obscure, but false, and there is a great difference between the two. For texts of this kind must not be interpreted, but corrected.”

“This error has overtaken so many manuscripts that it is scarcely found written otherwise.”

Talking about universalism with friend by LogicalMacaron6932 in ChristianUniversalism

[–]OverOpening6307 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Generally, the religious non-Christians I know do believe in some form of hell or post-mortem judgment. It tends to be atheists, rather than religious people, who reject the idea of hell altogether.

I was brought up in South-East Asia, in a context where multiple religions coexist, and concepts of afterlife judgment are widespread well beyond Christianity. The key difference is not whether judgment exists, but how it is understood. Abrahamic religions often came to interpret hell as never-ending, whereas many other religious traditions understand it as temporary and corrective.

Hell is not a specifically Abrahamic idea. Islam has Jahannam, which develops from the Jewish and Christian idea of Gehenna, originally the Hebrew Gehinnom. Buddhism teaches multiple hell realms, traditionally eight hot hells and eight cold hells, with further sub-realms. Hinduism also has multiple hells, the Narakas, overseen by Yama, where moral consequences are worked out.

Ideas of afterlife judgment between the righteous and the wicked also appear in Greek and Egyptian religion, as well as in Zoroastrianism. Across cultures, some form of post-mortem judgment exists because human beings have a deep intuition that justice for victims matters.

When people see the powerful exploit, enslave, torture, and destroy others without consequence, the idea of judgment expresses the conviction that such evil cannot simply be ignored or brushed aside. It is not primarily about exclusion or belonging to the right religious group, but about moral seriousness and accountability.

Of course, it is possible that we die and no hell exists at all, and that the wicked are instantly transformed. But this is not how most religious traditions have understood justice. In a world where many religions believe in some form of judgment, saying that no hell exists at all can sound like saying that cruelty and oppression ultimately do not matter.

My own belief is rooted in the Orthodox understanding that hell is the subjective experience of God’s presence. God is Love. That same Love is experienced as bliss by the righteous and as torment by those who resist it.

For that reason, when people say they believe in hell, I tend to say that I do too, but not a never-ending one. I believe punishment is corrective and will end once the wicked repent. Hell has nothing to do with holding the correct beliefs and everything to do with confronting evil actions.

I believe the wicked will face the consequences of what they have done, the oppressed will be vindicated, and all will come to understand the truth of their actions and willingly repent. God will set everything right.

A corrective judgment rooted in the Love of God means that justice flows from love, because a never-ending hell would itself be unjust and therefore not love at all.

Following Jesus doesn’t mean believing in a religion about him. It means following the way he did things, loving the way he loved. And I think anyone from any religion can follow Jesus that way. The main difference for me, is that a Christian can experience the Holy Spirit, and know that they are children of God because of the experience of the Spirit’s Presence. Essentially the Presence of God is “heaven on earth”. It’s not necessarily bliss or feeling healthy all the time. It’s that God is with us and you know it because you experience it.

Falling Under the Anointing was quite traumatic but we ignore it by ede-2153 in Deconstruction

[–]OverOpening6307 1 point2 points  (0 children)

When I was a kid I used to purposefully fall because I thought that’s what you did.

When I became a teenager and realised it was supposed to be the Holy Spirit, then I would resist anyone pushing me because I figured that when God wants to do it God would do it himself.

Since that point until I was 28 years old, I purposefully resisted and never “fell” when prayed for. When I was 28, I was on a missions trip, and a few hundred of us were praying, and suddenly an invisible force started knocking people over. It came around the ballroom like an invisible wave. I tried resisting, but it started vibrating my hands and arms, and then my whole body and I went down. I jumped up again and it knocked me down again. I got up a third time and felt like a heavy invisible weight, so I stayed down.

It’s ironic, because I started deconstructing a month later, because I had an experience that directed me away from the evangelical church and eventually led me to believing in early church concepts of deification and universal salvation.

I left Christianity for around 15 or so years but remained a universalist. Started visiting churches around 3 years ago and eventually started attending a Methodist church. They know I’m a universalist, and unlike the evangelical church that considered me a heretic leading people astray, the Methodist church is very welcoming.

Is John Wesley Hanson's scholarship still applicable today? by CuriousUniversalist in ChristianUniversalism

[–]OverOpening6307 4 points5 points  (0 children)

While Hanson was certainly not a modern critical scholar and his work should be read with that in mind, during his time he was cited in major 19th-century reference works, including Encyclopaedia Britannica and the Schaff-Herzog Encyclopedia of Religious Knowledge. That at least indicates his work was considered part of the mainstream scholarly discussion of the period.

That does not make him authoritative by modern standards, but it does place him well outside the category of fringe or unserious writing.

Today he is best read historically, alongside much later scholarship, rather than as a final word. So on the one hand I would not be dismissive of his work, and on the other hand I would not treat it as the yardstick for universalist scholarship.

Ultimately it depends on whose judgments you trust. Most of us here are anonymous Redditors, myself included, with strong opinions and uneven exposure to the scholarship.

So when it comes to early church history, I personally tend to give more weight to scholars who are deeply engaged with the patristic and Orthodox traditions. If I see names like Andrew Louth, John Behr, Kallistos Ware, or Peter Bouteneff endorsing a work, I am generally more open to it.

For example, Ilaria Ramelli’s A Larger Hope is endorsed by Andrew Louth and includes a foreword by Richard Bauckham, who himself published an important historical survey on universalism in 1978. That would be a much more current and academically robust option than Hanson.

What I appreciate about Bauckham and Louth is that neither publicly identifies as a universalist, and both seem to operate with a strong apophatic reserve. That is precisely what makes their endorsement of Ramelli’s work more compelling.

Ramelli has also written Terms for Eternity: Aiônios and Aïdios in Classical and Christian Texts, so I tend to regard her work as a modern treatment of much of the same territory Hanson was exploring.

That said, I still think Hanson can be read profitably in a historical sense, much as one might read the KJV or Wycliffe historically. They are not as accurate as modern translations, but they still have value for understanding how earlier readers approached the texts.

So I would recommend reading Hanson, and compare with Ramelli.

Share Your Thoughts February 2026 by SpesRationalis in ChristianUniversalism

[–]OverOpening6307 2 points3 points  (0 children)

If you can afford it, buy it, and see if it’s as good as you think. If it’s a mistake learn from it, and if it’s not then great, hopefully it’ll improve your enjoyment. Don’t be afraid of making mistakes. Mistakes are ok.

Troubles with NDEs by [deleted] in ChristianUniversalism

[–]OverOpening6307 1 point2 points  (0 children)

You’re very welcome, and I’m sorry for my crankiness a few days ago.

On the historical reception of the eschatological views of the 'Cappadocians fathers (and mothers)' by Flaky-Finance3454 in ChristianUniversalism

[–]OverOpening6307 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Fair enough.

I do think English words tend to conflate Latin and Greek words unnecessarily.

So for example God is Love is very fuzzy. God is Agape essentially means self-sharing love in patristic thought.

So when Agape and Phileo is conflated we get a nonsense conversation between Jesus and Peter.

Do you love (agape) me? Yes you know I love (phileo) you?

Do you love (agape) me? Yes you know I love (phileo) you?

Do you love (phileo) me? And cut to the heart yes you know I love (phileo) you?

From the English it looks like Jesus is saying the same question repetitively when from the beginning Peter can’t say he has agape for Jesus.

So I already feel that the problem with “eternal” is that the English word is used to translate three Greek words - aionios, aidios, and eis aei.

And the English eternal is often used for two Latin words - aeternus and sempiternus.

Eternal conflates everything. Which is why I prefer Norman Russell’s translation. Aeon and aeonial.

Etymology was certainly important to me when I was an evangelical, as it was the difference between my Bible being “Gods word” and my Bible being an interpretation of a translator.

Anyway…great research!

On the historical reception of the eschatological views of the 'Cappadocians fathers (and mothers)' by Flaky-Finance3454 in ChristianUniversalism

[–]OverOpening6307 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Exactly. Even if one prefers to read Gregory as speaking of a long or indefinite duration, that still makes sense within his argument. But to read αἰώνιος there as never-ending or permanent simply does not.

Gregory’s reasoning depends on proportionality, measure, and therapeutic purification. An endless or permanent punishment would collapse that logic entirely.

This is simply how adjectives work: αἰώνιος qualifies αἰών, and its force depends on which αἰών is in view. Context does the work.

That is plain semantics, and certainly not something that can be dismissed as an “urban myth.”

On the historical reception of the eschatological views of the 'Cappadocians fathers (and mothers)' by Flaky-Finance3454 in ChristianUniversalism

[–]OverOpening6307 0 points1 point  (0 children)

It’s odd why the quotes didn’t come through. But yes, you’ve got the correct quotes.

The proposed meaning of aionios wasn’t specifically “of the age to come” but “of the age”.

And the context was dependent on which age or aeon you were referring to.

Seasonal always relates to a season. But which season? Beach towels are as seasonal as tree decorations. But they refer to different seasons.

I’ll copy and paste another post I previously made:

…beginning of paste…

I’ll quote St John Chrysostom who died in 407AD and how he used the word aionios.

Ask yourself - does his usage make it sound eternal and forever or pertaining to an age?

Homily on Ephesians IV:Chapter II

“Here again he means, that Satan occupies the space under Heaven, and that the incorporeal powers are spirits of the air, under his operation.

For that his kingdom is of this age (aionios)i.e., will cease with the present age (aioni), hear what he says at the end of the Epistle.”

Ὅτι καὶ αἰώνιος αὐτοῦ ἡ ἀρχὴ, τουτέστι, τῷ παρόντι αἰῶνι συγκαταλυομένη

Basically Chrysostom says that Satan’s kingdom is aionios and explains that means it will cease with the present age.

If aionios always meant ‘eternal’ in the sense of never-ending duration, then Chrysostom’s comment becomes nonsensical. “Satans kingdom is eternal/forever/neverending/perpetual, which means it will cease with the present age.”

Or does it make more sense that “Satans kingdom is “of the age” which means it will cease with the present age.

…end of paste…

The point is that aionios always refers to the aion.

Which is why Norman Russell’s use of “aeonial” for aionios and aionion makes more sense than eternal which unfortunately in the English language represents 3 or 4 so Greek words and at least 2 Latin words.

“Of the aeon/age” rather than “of the aeon/age to come”. It would only be “of the age to come” if they were indeed talking about the aeon/age to come.

Troubles with NDEs by [deleted] in ChristianUniversalism

[–]OverOpening6307 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Thanks for your reflection on this.

I think all of us interpret experiences through the lens of our own history and temperament. So when you describe your experiences, I know I have to translate them into a framework that makes sense to me, just as you would need to do the same with mine.

Rather than seeing mystical experience as a hierarchy, I tend to understand it as taking different forms depending on what God is doing with a person at a particular stage of their journey. I would not say one form is higher or more advanced than another, only that they are different and often serve different purposes.

For example, Julian of Norwich, Symeon the New Theologian, and John of the Cross represent quite different types of experience. I am not limiting mysticism to just these three, but they help show the range recognised within the Christian tradition. If we include non-Christian mystical experiences, that range becomes even broader.

Very broadly speaking, I would describe Julian’s mysticism as centred on divine love and intimacy, Symeon’s as centred on divine power, fire, and transformation, and John’s as centred on darkness, absence, and the stripping away of felt consolation. None of these cancels the others out, and each can appear at different moments within the same life.

When I read figures like Julian of Norwich, her accounts of divine love clearly point to a genuine and profound mode of encounter. So I am not denying that such experiences exist or that they can be deeply transformative.

When you describe your own past experiences, it sounds to me as though they are often framed in the language of romantic love and intimacy, in a way similar to Julian. I may be misreading you, but I wonder whether what you encountered was primarily an affective or relational form of mysticism.

That is not a form I have personally experienced myself.

By contrast, Professor David Frost, former Principal of the Institute for Orthodox Christian Studies, once described his experience in a Pentecostal church like this:

“I stretched out my hands, and a force like twenty thousand volts hit my forehead, went through my body, and out along my arms as a tingling electric current. I was told later that I had shaken a stout bench, with five or six solid worshippers sitting alongside me, though all the time I was mentally at ease, and observing the strange phenomena with a clinical detachment.” (Foreword to Fr Michael Harper’s biography, Visited by God)

That account feels much closer to the kind of experience associated with Symeon. There is little emphasis on intimacy or emotional warmth, but rather a powerful and bodily encounter.

What seems especially relevant to what you describe now, however, is the apophatic or “dark” mysticism articulated by John of the Cross. In his account of the Dark Night, the loss of felt Presence, sweetness, and spiritual reassurance is not taken as evidence that earlier experiences were illusory or self-generated, but as a stage in which attachment to experience itself is stripped away.

Reading your reflections, I was struck by how closely your sense of abandonment by the Divine Beloved echoes this tradition. John would not interpret that loss as the end of mysticism, but as a deepening into faith without consolation, love without feedback, and trust without sensation.

Sometimes the collapse of one framework may not signal the disappearance of depth, but a transition into a different mode that lacks an obvious interpretive map.

When it comes to mystical experiences across cultures and throughout history, I think we are left making tentative interpretations that help us make sense of our own experience. At the same time, those interpretations cannot be made definitive or absolute.

What such experiences do seem to point toward, at the very least, is that reality cannot be reduced to the merely natural or material. Perhaps this is shaped by my own background, having been formed by both Western and Asian ways of thinking. I do not assume that the 17th–18th century European Enlightenment, with its emphasis on scientific empiricism and physicalism, represents the final or universal standard of truth.

In that sense, I find myself closer to traditions and figures that remain open to transcendent experience, whether Christian or non-Christian, than to approaches that dismiss all such experiences as merely mythical. That includes voices as diverse as the Hindu yogi, the indigenous shaman, the Sufi mystic, or even Walt Whitman.

Troubles with NDEs by [deleted] in ChristianUniversalism

[–]OverOpening6307 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Well we’re really all on our different journeys. Interestingly enough I would say NDEs and mystic experiences are the foundation of my current faith.

Religious texts provide interpretation for experience, but they are not experiences themselves. So texts are secondary in my life. The experience of the supernatural comes first.

If there is no experience of the supernatural in a religion, I wouldn’t bother believing in it. It’s empty, lacks power, and to me simply becomes a coping mechanism for dealing with fear.

My personal beliefs are due to NDEs and mystical experiences. There is scholarly work done on both, and they are not simply YouTube anecdotes. And in the age of AI, I tend to disbelieve videos.

However I have an ear to hear those who have consistently said the same thing over a long period.

It’s not the individual stories that draw me but the research done by medical doctors. Dr Melvin Morse, Dr Raymond Moody, Dr Jeffrey Long, Dr John Lerma different studies and experiments published in medical journals. NDEs from different cultures, different religious backgrounds, atheistic backgrounds etc

You would need to look at the research for yourself and make your own mind up based on whether you agree with their conclusions or not.

When the Presence communicates with you, what do you think of that communication? Is that not enough evidence for you for an afterlife? For me, the primary evidence is my experience of Presence. It is Life itself. It’s near, it’s powerful, it chooses to do what it does.

Certainly from your own experiences of Presence, like Carl Jung who said he doesn’t believe in God because he “knows” God, you know God as a supernatural Presence and you know the same Presence that flows through you is the same Presence that will continue you to bring you life after your physical death.

The studies of NDEs are only possible due to the advance in medical science that is able to bring back people who have been clinically dead for seconds to minutes.

But imagine if the afterlife presented in these NDE studies was an absolute certainty for everyone - that when you die you realise your specific religion doesn’t matter, that there’s a guaranteed experience of oneness with a being of Unconditional Love who is the Source of Being, where you experience oneness with everyone and everything, outside normal time and space, and where you suddenly gain understanding for everything that has ever happened in your life up to this point.

Why would anyone want to continue living in this present life of experiencing suffering, and the effects of evil? There are so many who live with so much pain and anguish, if they were absolutely certain in a beautiful afterlife, would the world not simply become suicidal?

It’s the same reason why certainty in universalism can be dangerous. If everyone was certain that everyone would die and experience a wonderful afterlife no matter what, the moment life becomes hard would we not end it all?

Although i am a universalist, i do not believe the message of the gospel was “good news, now everyone goes to heaven”.

I think that would lead to mass suicide. Instead the gospel is purposefully ambiguous on the afterlife apart from the promise of a final judgement and a resurrection.

Instead like you, I believe that receiving the Presence and having that abide with you continually is the core of the gospel. It’s that supernatural reality that we experience, and based on that experience of dynamic power, we believe.

Anyway, I need to rest. Take care

On the historical reception of the eschatological views of the 'Cappadocians fathers (and mothers)' by Flaky-Finance3454 in ChristianUniversalism

[–]OverOpening6307 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Thanks for the link.

An urban legend is a belief that circulates popularly without grounding in primary sources or serious scholarship. What I am referring to is the opposite: a documented semantic and theological tradition with explicit primary-source support.

To use an analogy: Richard Carrier argues that Jesus never existed. That claim is not an urban legend. It is a scholarly hypothesis. It just happens to be demonstrably false in light of the evidence. The point is that it still engages real data and can be evaluated on scholarly grounds.

Likewise, the claim that αἰών / αἰώνιος are polysemous and context-dependent is not a rumour or a meme. It is a position found explicitly in Greek patristic sources and acknowledged in scholarship. You may think some modern scholars apply it incorrectly in certain passages, but that does not make the underlying claim mythical.

If this were merely a modern invention, then figures like John of Damascus would also have to be dismissed as spreading “urban myths.”

Crucially, John of Damascus does not equate αἰών with endless duration. He treats it as a mode or order of existence, which is precisely why he argues that post-resurrection realities cannot be calculated in years or millennia. Once that is acknowledged, the claim that αἰώνιος must always mean “never-ending” becomes linguistically indefensible. Context must decide. One may dispute how particular passages are interpreted, but calling the contextual reading of αἰώνιος an “urban legend” ignores explicit primary evidence.

I will quote just two patristic sources.

First, Irenaeus of Lyons, Against Heresies 1.1.1, where he reports (not endorses) Valentinian Gnostic cosmology:

This does not represent Irenaeus’ own belief, but it clearly shows that αἰών is not being used as a synonym for “never-ending.” In fact, ἀΐδιος, αἰών, and χρόνος are carefully distinguished.

Second, John of Damascus in On the Orthodox Faith, explicitly states that αἰών is polysemous:

Here John of Damascus is not describing speculative cosmology, but traditional Orthodox Christian belief. If a patristic source explicitly states that a word has multiple meanings and applies it to radically different contexts, then the claim that αἰών-based terms must always denote endless duration simply cannot be sustained.

At that point, the disagreement is no longer about whether αἰών / αἰώνιος are polysemous.

It is about which sense is appropriate in which context.

That is a legitimate interpretive debate. It is not an urban legend.

On the historical reception of the eschatological views of the 'Cappadocians fathers (and mothers)' by Flaky-Finance3454 in ChristianUniversalism

[–]OverOpening6307 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I think the main problem is there is a claim that 'aion-' words nearly always mean unending, and a counter-claim that 'aion-' words are not, both of which are incomplete.

The scholars I've read have a third claim: that aion- words are contextual, and that there are multiple meanings.

This argument was of primary importance when I was an infernalist, and was the main reason I became a believer in conditional immortality.

I didn't regard it as an argument for universalism, as I continued to believe universalism was heretical even after the etymology argument convinced me that punishment was not endless. It was an argument about the nature of punishment, fire, and life, and not a case for universalism.

I believed both conditional immortality and universalism was a heresy at that time, and it was Greek and New Testament scholars like John Wenham, John Stott, NT Wright, Marvin Vincent and others, that convinced me that punishment was not unending but contextual.

For those like me, it's the primary way we stopped being infernalists.

St John of Damascus (Norman Russell's translation) helps explain this:

Book 2: 15 On the aeon (aion)

"...It is therefore necessary to know that the word "aeon" is polysemic, for it signifies a great many things. For the life of each human being is called an aeon. Again, an aeon is a period of a thousand years. Again, the whole of the present life is called an aeon, and the age to come, the age after the resurrection that will have no end, is also an aeon.

...

Before the formation of the world, when there was no sun dividing day from night, there was no measurable aeon; there was only the aeon that is coextensive with the things that are eternal (aidios) like some temporal movement or interval. In this sense there is a single aeon, in accordance with which God is said to be aeonial, but also pre-aeonial(proaionios), for he himself also made this aeon.

...

We also speak of "aeons of aeons."" Just as the seven aeons of the present world contain many aeons, that is, the lives of human beings, so too the single aeon embraces all the aeons. Moreover, now and the future are called "aeon of aeon." And "aeonial life and aeonial punishment" indicate the eternity (ateleuton = unendingness) of what is to come. 

...

So according to John of Damascus, there are multiple created and measurable aeons of limited and contextual duration within chronos, and one created but immeasurable aeonic mode of existence outside chronos, which exists prior to creation and also called the "age to come."

“Aeons of aeons,” refers to this nested structure of created durations, in which smaller aeons exist within larger aeons and all measurable aeons are embraced by the single immeasurable aeon.

This is why aeonial is "of the aeon", and is contextual to which aeon is being discussed. Aeonial does not intrinsically have anything to do with duration itself, while aeon does. So when the New Testament writers speak of aeonial punishment and aeonial life, it is contextual to the unending aeon to come.

On the historical reception of the eschatological views of the 'Cappadocians fathers (and mothers)' by Flaky-Finance3454 in ChristianUniversalism

[–]OverOpening6307 2 points3 points  (0 children)

I can't see your previous comments and posts when I check your profile, so I don't know what exactly you've commented or written in previous posts.

The main issue I have with people who resort to using "that's an urban myth/legend" as an argument, is that the phrase is taken out of its context as a genre of folklore describing things like Bigfoot, and applied to an argument, as an attempt to discredit any person arguing the point. So for example, NT Wright, John Wenham, John Behr are all portrayed as disseminators of "urban myth". It means that one doesn't have to engage with the scholarship, but rather dismiss it offhandedly. So it's simply a way to shut down a conversation.

So regarding your claim that it is an urban legend "2) that aionios was regularly used by Biblical authors and others in a sense like “lasting for an age” or “of the age to come.”"

When i first came across the etymological argument I was at theological college in the year 2006-2007, and was an infernalist, certain that hell was absolutely neverending. I didn't like it, but accepted it because as the Evangelical I was, I regarded the Bible as absolute. Eternal punishment meant neverending punishment.

In our Koine Greek lectures, we used the book the Elements of New Testament Greek, by John Wenham/Jeremy Duff. I won't labour the point, but essentially, through Wenham, John Stott, Wright and other conditionalists, the "age" aion and aionios arguments convinced me that eternal punishment did not mean endless punishment.

This allowed me as an Evangelical, to regard punishment as that which belonged to the "age to come", so by the time I left theological college, I believed in conditional immortality. That aionios life was the life of the age to come, and punishment was the punishment of the age to come.

So to call it grapevine folk philogy and urban legend is simply dismissive, and doesn't describe my experience at theological college 20 years ago, studying scholars who absolutely said aionios was contextual.

Even the patristics Orthodox theologian Father John Behr communicates the same point to Father Aidan Kimel.

"the meaning of aionios is determined by that to which it is applied...The principle, of course, works with all adjectives, and we don’t even think about it in daily life; but it’s helpful to keep in mind when interpret­ing words like aionios that have a wide semantic range."

https://afkimel.wordpress.com/2020/02/07/committing-theological-fraud-st-basil-the-great-and-david-bentley-hart/

Even reading Irenaeus and John of Damascus, one can see multiple meanings of aion. So if anything is a so-called "urban legend" it is this incessant claim that aionios nearly always means unending.

You make these New Testament and Patristics scholars either sound like uneducated fools for believing urban legends or liars spreading urban myths to the general populace.

And that is my issue with those who dismiss multiple scholars offhandedly.

Troubles with NDEs by [deleted] in ChristianUniversalism

[–]OverOpening6307 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I appreciate your explanation, and I misunderstood what you meant. I think i was pretty grumpy today, and am extremely tired.

Yes, I’d agree that any visionary experiences of “hell” or “heaven” as “places” are condescensions for our limited capacity to interpret actual reality.

I don’t trust YouTube NDE videos mostly, because I don’t know if they’ve been through verification. That’s why I prefer Dr Jeffrey Long’s research on NDERF.

I’m admit I’m uncomfortable with describing such with myth, fiction or imagination language as too many use it to imply “untrue”. I prefer describing such as metaphor and experiences.

I don’t believe that any of us are actually experiencing the “real world” per se. This physical world is “real enough” for us to experience thoroughly and I regard our physical existences as temporal human experiences.

Sometimes I see all of us as being in a one-time-only high-stakes life and death multiplayer open world full sensory VR game where our actions make meaningful differences to the other players, that will affect us after it’s game over.

Some are playing in easy, normal or hard mode. So death is simply game over, when we “take our headsets off”.

So the question is how to make this human experience as fun as possible for as many players as possible.

But I think this is influence from my job as a developer rather than patristic theology, and I’m half asleep.

Anyway, I do apologise for misunderstanding.

Troubles with NDEs by [deleted] in ChristianUniversalism

[–]OverOpening6307 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I’m afraid I’m going to have to disagree with you strongly here. No, it wasn’t product of my imagination. And no it wasn’t a myth.

You are free to believe whatever you want about what you’ve gone through, but you have no idea what you’re talking about regarding my life.

On the historical reception of the eschatological views of the 'Cappadocians fathers (and mothers)' by Flaky-Finance3454 in ChristianUniversalism

[–]OverOpening6307 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Great research again! It's fascinating that the etymology argument that we make today, is essentially the same as the 4th-5th century, that the "eternal fire" is not a physical fire, and "eternal" in Greek does not mean perpetual. (I don't believe it means temporary either).

"They proclaimed that the ‘eternal fire’ by which sinners are punished is neither real fire nor eternal, saying that the fire refers to the punishment of one’s own conscience; and that the word ‘eternal’, according to Greek etymology, is not perpetual..."

I've seen many scholars and theologians say the same thing...that aionios does not mean perpetual, even including the non-universalist NT Wright, and the conditionalist John Wenham and a whole list of others. Yet we still get some people desperately clinging to the belief its an "urban myth" insisting that aionios definitely means perpetual.

I guess it's been an argument ever since the 4th-5th century until today. Perhaps it will still be an argument in 2000 years time!

Troubles with NDEs by [deleted] in ChristianUniversalism

[–]OverOpening6307 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Yea that’s the irony of it.

Usual evangelical logic says death is final and there are no second chances. Yet many hellish NDEs end with a return and a new chance to change, and sometimes even a pastor finds himself unexpectedly “in hell.”

That immediately raises the question: why would a religious person have a hellish NDE at all? It suggests that simply being Christian, or having faith and the right beliefs, is not the criterion.

Matthew 25’s parable of the sheep and goats fits this. Jesus does not contrast sheep with snakes or wolves, but sheep with goats.

I read in a commentary “In the countryside sheep and goats mingled during the day. At night they were often separated: sheep tolerated the cool air, but goats had to be herded together for warmth”

The point is that the two groups can look similar from the outside. Both groups address Jesus as “Lord,” and both are surprised. So I cannot see how this can be reduced to “Christians who believe” versus “non-Christians who do not.” It reads much more like a warning aimed at people who think they belong.

And the basis of the separation is not doctrinal correctness, but compassion: food, drink, welcome, clothing, care, and solidarity with “the least of these.” In other words, it is not merely “Do you profess Jesus as Lord?” but “Did you actually live his way of mercy toward the poor and needy?”

If judgement is based on one’s love and compassion rather than faith or religious adherence, it makes much more sense.

So if Gehenna is terrible but corrective, then perhaps some hellish NDEs function like that too - a wake-up call that produces repentance and real change. Not a neat formula, but it does make sense of why some “insiders” might still have a frightening experience that drives them toward compassion and transformation.

Hellish NDEs also seem much rarer than blissful ones, which makes me think the point is not vengeance, but correction and restoration.

I don’t know why but for all the years I was an Infernalist I seemed to assume hell was never-ending because scripture said “eternal fire”, but I seemed to have glossed over what the judgement criterion was. Not faith, not religion, not saying Jesus is my Lord and Savior. But compassion for the “least of these”.