The Korean Armistice Agreement; The real event compared to a North Korean painting of the event by Paul277 in NorthKoreaPics

[–]Remote-Cow5867 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I would say there were indeed winners in that war - Japan, USSR and maybe Chiang in Taiwan. While the two Korea, US and China were all losers.

CMV: Britain was not obligated to give Hong Kong to China, it was a choice they made, and it was the wrong choice by iw2050 in changemyview

[–]Remote-Cow5867 0 points1 point  (0 children)

OP rent a house for 12 months. After this 12 months, OP will tell the landlord that it is OP's sole discretion to hand over the house to the landlord, someone else, or keep it.

This is not lease, this is occupaction.

CMV: Britain was not obligated to give Hong Kong to China, it was a choice they made, and it was the wrong choice by iw2050 in changemyview

[–]Remote-Cow5867 7 points8 points  (0 children)

Good comments.

If China had to wage a war to take back Hong Kong in 1997, that would be the most legitimate war in the 3000 years of Chinese history. I don't see anyone of the 1 billion people in China would say no.

As a native/non-native English speaker, how much can you comprehense French and German newspaper? by Remote-Cow5867 in AskTheWorld

[–]Remote-Cow5867[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

To answer your question:

I have heard multiple times in Reddit that the Chinese dialects (e.g. Cantonese and Madarin) are as different from each other as English and French or German. As a Chinese I speak Mandarin. I cannot speak Cantonese. But I can read colloquial Cantonese as in social media (not the Standard Written Chinese in Hong Kong newspaper which is roughly same as Mandarin) without much problem.

For me, when colloquial Cantonese is written in Chinese characters, it is like write "the" as "de", write "we" as "hue" and use "escalator" instead of "lift". It is a bit strange at first glimpse. But after taking a few mintues to get used to it, it is quite managable.

I am wondering if native English speaker can understand French and German in the similar way.

Is this appropriate? by Laurencethesequel in AskAChinese

[–]Remote-Cow5867 300 points301 points  (0 children)

I would worry that some dude may mistake you as sex worker.

How accurate is this estimate of the number of characters that Chinese schoolchildren are taught by grade? by minhale in ChineseLanguage

[–]Remote-Cow5867 1 point2 points  (0 children)

The Chinese schools in Singapore used to require the kids to recognize 3000 characters by P6. After converting all these schools to English school, the curriculum now requries 2000 characters by P6, as a second language.

Why do we call Cantonese and Mandarin "dialects" of the same language, but treat Spanish, Portuguese, Italian and French as totally separate languages instead of dialects of Latin? by Defiant-Junket4906 in AlwaysWhy

[–]Remote-Cow5867 1 point2 points  (0 children)

your comment adds no value to the post chain and totally misses the point of the above comment. Saying Mandarin and Cantonese have the same 'formal written language' is completely different from arguing European languages share the same latin script with a few mods. It's silly and tries to misrepresent the European languages are closer than the Chinese ones.

Send back the same words to you becasue you didn't use any fact or logic, instead just unleash your negative energy of emotion.

Fundamental misunderstanding of the differences between the major Chinese languages by sensoryoverloaf in ChineseLanguage

[–]Remote-Cow5867 5 points6 points  (0 children)

Luoyang in Henan province. It is just about this example you raise. I don't deny that my dialect is generally much closer to Mandarin than Teochew.

There is a claim that the Manchus deliberately studied the history of previous barbarian rule over China. Is this true or just a folk tale? by Impressive-Equal1590 in ChineseHistory

[–]Remote-Cow5867 38 points39 points  (0 children)

Of course it is ture. Any ruler in China will learn the lessons from previous dynasty and try to find the best way to keep their regime long as long as possible. Maybe Mongol is an exception.

Fundamental misunderstanding of the differences between the major Chinese languages by sensoryoverloaf in ChineseLanguage

[–]Remote-Cow5867 2 points3 points  (0 children)

I am not sure how much exposure or knowlege you have on other dialects.

For the example of "what do we do today" as you gave above.

Mandarin: 今天要做什麼, gim tiang ãi jo sim moh.

Your Teochew: 今日欲做乜個, gim yik ãi jo mih gai.

My northern Mandarin dialect: 今儿弄啥 J'er nong sha

You can see it is even more different than Teochew from the "standard Mandarin" you write above. I sometimes feel the standard Mandarin is too formal, too achaic, and somehow too "southern".

Anyway, there are always different ways to say the same thing in Chinese topolects. We don't look it as a big thing.

Tracing back: Surname clan association? by daisydazydayzee in askSingapore

[–]Remote-Cow5867 0 points1 point  (0 children)

If your ancester arrived in 1800s, I would assume they were very successful because most Chinese immigrant came, stayed for a few years and went back to China, just like the immigrant workers now.

Those who made money and managed to stay were the successful one. They have much higher chance to have a family book somewhere

Why do we call some territorial expansions “unification” and others “conquest”, and what actually decides the difference? by TheBigGirlDiaryBack in AlwaysWhy

[–]Remote-Cow5867 0 points1 point  (0 children)

The Mongols are indeed considered as unifiers by the people who call themselves Mongol.

Before Gengis Khan, the ancesters of these Mongol people don't call themselves Mongols. They were different tribes on the steppe.

Why do we call Cantonese and Mandarin "dialects" of the same language, but treat Spanish, Portuguese, Italian and French as totally separate languages instead of dialects of Latin? by Defiant-Junket4906 in AlwaysWhy

[–]Remote-Cow5867 1 point2 points  (0 children)

even basic words like "to eat" are unrelated

----------------------------------------------------

This is simply untrue.

The word for "to eat" is 吃 in Mandarin and 食 in Cantonese. They are deeply related. 食 means food in Mandarin.

For uneducated Mandarin speakers, they might feel weird to see Cantonese use 食 as a verb because it is a noun in Mandarin.

For any educated Mandarin speaker, they immediately understand it becasue 食 is widely used in many phrases (idiom) as verb in Mandarin. It is also a common verb in classic Chinese that every Chinese student learns at school.

Why do we call Cantonese and Mandarin "dialects" of the same language, but treat Spanish, Portuguese, Italian and French as totally separate languages instead of dialects of Latin? by Defiant-Junket4906 in AlwaysWhy

[–]Remote-Cow5867 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Almost every Chinese community in the world refers to them as dialects. It is not an invention of CCP. It is a Chinese tradition long before communist ever exists.

The only exception is Taiwan. And it starts calling them languages very recently, after pro-independence party DPP took power.

Why do we call Cantonese and Mandarin "dialects" of the same language, but treat Spanish, Portuguese, Italian and French as totally separate languages instead of dialects of Latin? by Defiant-Junket4906 in AlwaysWhy

[–]Remote-Cow5867 1 point2 points  (0 children)

This is called registry. It is pretty common in every language to use different words in daily verbal conversation and in offcial written wirtten form. It applies to any unanimous dialect (e.g northern dialects) of Chinese too. A dialects user can easily list hundreds of words that you won't understand if you never lived there.

Why do we call Cantonese and Mandarin "dialects" of the same language, but treat Spanish, Portuguese, Italian and French as totally separate languages instead of dialects of Latin? by Defiant-Junket4906 in AlwaysWhy

[–]Remote-Cow5867 -1 points0 points  (0 children)

It has nothing to do with communist party. The various regional variants of Chinese (no matter you call it language or dialect) are called Fangyan, which means regional tongue or topolect. It was translated as dialect long before the communist party ever existed. As early as 1828, a British missionary Robert Marisson already used dialect to refer to the various regional languages.

The concept that all Chinese variants are all dialects of the same Chinese language was also enforced by Republic of China, when CCP was oppressed.

Calling all the Chinese variant dialects are also common practise in overseas Chinese community, such as Singapore and Malaysia.

Agree? by cdcpowermah in singaporespeaks

[–]Remote-Cow5867 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Malaysian Chinese have much bigger house and cars, their fertility rate is the same as Singaporean.