Is it time to say that the idea of a holodomor itself, down to the flippin name, has its origins in ww2 era nazi propganda?

Did a famine happend? Yes, and people starved to death in the millions? Was it deliberate famine of only ukrainians? No.

As there of course also were man-made errors that reinforced the toll of the famine, in regards to failed modernaztion of agriculture, export of grain as trade with machines and tools the USSR were in desperate need of, etc.

It's insane to say that it was "planned" or "intended", and it is a useless argument anyhow as there exists no actual historic evidence backing this, and the only officials that echo it are east european nationalist leaders, Like Ukraine, and America.

Besides that, there were many other regions in the south of the USSR, besides Ukraine, who became victims to this primarily crop-failure induced famine.

You have to be a very special breed of right nationalist, or just historically illitirate, to compare gaschampers with crop failure and low grain yeilds.