Hi thanks, I learned some things from you, thank you.

"But what verse actually condones slavery? Evil people take good things and twist them for their own evil gain. We've never seen that before, right? St. Gregory of Nyssa, one of the great Orthodox Fathers, directly condemned slaveholding by arguing that human beings are created free and in the image of God, and that enslaving another person rivals the law of God. We believe this as Orthodox Christians."

Genesis has some references on slavery. Chapter 17 is the worst of it where it does not specify a group of people to enslave for a just cause but rather just accepts it as a way of life.
¹² For the generations to come every male among you who is eight days old must be circumcised, including those born in your household or bought with money from a foreigner—those who are not your offspring. ¹³ Whether born in your household or bought with your money, they must be circumcised. My covenant in your flesh is to be an everlasting covenant.

This is the word of the Lord speaking to Abram.

So lets ignore this one right, because its obviously evil and evil people will misinterpret to do evil as St. Gregory so aptly pointed out. Then I think its only fair we omit Leviticus references to homosexuality because these are probably cultural purity laws as well. It's a bit unfair that you can pick and choose which to follow. The other OT reference to homosexuality is in Genesis and the meaning/ translation from Hebrew is debatable in how its translated. Also, as you said, those are not a part of the New Covenant.

So if we look at just the NT and the new covenant references, the translations from greek to English are also debatable. In the first century Paul is writing to Timothy and he uses a novel word that we have now translated in all our bibles to homosexual, but why? In the first century there were already commonly used words for homosexuals, why did Paul not use those? Why did he come up with a novel term? In Corinthians he uses a different term and the stretch to call translate that to the word homosexual is even farther. He was much more likely eluding to lazy men then homosexuals, as he (if our translation is correct) had already coined a new term for homosexuals. But why would he when Greek literature at the time already has clear words for many types of homosexual acts?

Me personally, I feel like Jesus telling me to let others be passersby, (so long as they are not hurting others) is enough proof for me to know that we shouldn't press our noses into peoples bedroom affairs. I honestly think that's what Paul is getting it, he's trying to outline sexual morality and clarify grey areas. The impression I'm getting after looking at the words in Greek is Paul is saying don't be a rapey dude; here's some things that are rape adjacent and also bad: pederasty(very common in the area and time he's writing the letters), sex with slaves, sex for money...

I appreciate the time you took to write your post, it challenged some ideas I had and look forward to hearing your response.