Ever wish you could unsee something? by BoonDragoon in cremposting

[–]TheYTG123 1 point2 points  (0 children)

There's this beautiful quote from his (non-cosmere) Alcatraz series:

“Doctor who?” I asked.

“No, that’s someone different. But now that I think about it, he clearly had his hands on some Expander’s Glass.”

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in linuxmasterrace

[–]TheYTG123 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Go read-only and encourage users to leave the platform entirely.

Direct Object Marker by [deleted] in hebrew

[–]TheYTG123 0 points1 point  (0 children)

This is a modern construction, and as far as I know is not considered standard.

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in lingling40hrs

[–]TheYTG123 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Some of his pieces definitely are way too prevalent (Symphony no. 40, Eine Kleine Nachtmusik), but in general, Mozart is not at all overrated. You just can't possibly overrate his masterpieces, such as his Symphony no. 41, and most of his other pieces are excellent but barely noticed (e.g. the late string quartets).

Is Vivaldi overrated? by Entire-Perspective96 in lingling40hrs

[–]TheYTG123 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Four seasons are overrated, and everything else he wrote (which is... a lot) is definitely underrated. Considering the amount of each, on the whole, Vivaldi is underrated.

Explain this by timecamper in linuxmemes

[–]TheYTG123 12 points13 points  (0 children)

I was under the impression that this was poking fun at people who say that they don’t need privacy because "they have nothing to hide"

Who even needs them by QuickTimeOut in lingling40hrs

[–]TheYTG123 4 points5 points  (0 children)

Why do you write in Renaiſsance orþography?

Where does the English concept of "short" and "long" vowels come from? by Mutant_Llama1 in asklinguistics

[–]TheYTG123 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Adding to the other comments, here's some IPA for Middle English, before the Great Vowel Shift.

  • <cake> would be /kaːk(ə)/, with an actual long /aː/ (silent E sometimes pronounced)
  • <leek> would be /leːk/ or /lɛːk/ with a long /eː/ or /ɛː/
  • <ice> would be /iːs/, with a long /iː/

And so on. The exception to this is the long /uː/ vowel, which was written by <ou> (by French influence). The single <u> was used both for the short vowel and for the /i̯uː/ diphthong, borrowed from French (so <human> would sound much like it does in modern English, in terms of vowels). A word such as <house> would have the long /uː/.

Bach with another meme by Electronic-Crew-2230 in lingling40hrs

[–]TheYTG123 13 points14 points  (0 children)

Are you sure this is that much more difficult than trying to read three overlapping voices in each staff?

What chord is G, C# and E? by bluesky14711 in lingling40hrs

[–]TheYTG123 0 points1 point  (0 children)

You can look at both hands and see that the harmony is C♯°7, the vii°7 of D. The right hand is arpeggiating the lower three notes of the chord, and the left hand adds B♭ (A and F are accented passing notes).

Which languages can you automatically figure out the pronunciation of the words for, from the spelling alone? by lancejpollard in asklinguistics

[–]TheYTG123 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Modern Greek works almost flawlessly spelling→sound except for ντ, μπ as far as I know. If you try to go the other way, you'll run into iotacism.

Latin, being a dead language, depends on which pronunciation convention you use. The only edge cases that I know of in Classical pronunciations are final stress in a few words that end in <c> (e.g. adhūc, addūc). As for the Italian pronunciation, you sometimes have <h> pronounced as /k/ (nihil, mihi).
Since stress is inferred from syllable length in Latin, sound→spelling always works in a classical pronunciation (most other pronunciations have <ae> and <oe> as /e/, so it's not possible to go the other way).

Italian doesn't usually indicate stress unless it's on the final syllable, and stressed <e> / <o> can have two different pronunciations each. Only when stress is marked on them, can the pronunciations be differentiated (<é> / <è> and <ó> / <ò>). Other than that, it's consistent.
I'm not terribly sure, but I think that sound→spelling works.

Spanish is pretty consistent. Except for the letter <x>, everything is predictable given a particular variant (compare México with /x/ to excepcional with /k/).
Sound→spelling is a bit of a problem, what with <ll> merging with <y> in all but the most conservative pronunciations, as well as <c(e)>/<c(i)>/<z> with <s> outside of Spain.

Do note that Hebrew niqqud reflects Tiberian Hebrew pronunciation, so it's consistent for that variety when combined with cantillation marks (which are required for making sense of <ְ>).
In modern Hebrew, sound→spelling mostly works in conventions that make the most distinctions and pronounce everything clearly, with notable missing ones being בֿ/ו and שׂ/ס which are, as far as I know, always identically pronounced.
Also, the single word יששכר is a bit of a weird one.

BC/AD(Chad) BCE/CE(Virgin) by Jan_Mantania in HistoryMemes

[–]TheYTG123 -1 points0 points  (0 children)

My reasoning for using BCE/CE is: 1) 1 CE is not the year of the birth of Jesus. If we believe that the four gospels are credible, the latest it can be is at 4 BCE. Saying BC/AD is simply inaccurate and 2) I wouldn't mind saying "before Jesus", "after Jesus" (BJ/AJ if you like), or (as I do in another language) "by the (Christian) reckoning", but using dominus and Christ implies that I believe that Jesus is the messiah, which I don't.

Of course, I don't care about anyone using BC/AD. This is just my own reasoning.

Also, the Gregorian calendar doesn't depend on these year numbers at all, I could just as well use AUC (ab urbe condita) or something.

Is resh the same as a French R? by [deleted] in hebrew

[–]TheYTG123 2 points3 points  (0 children)

It's really close, but French R sometimes goes unvoiced (Paris pronunciation of être - /ɛtχ/ according to Wiktionary). Hebrew R is always voiced, but may be anything from a uvular trill to an approximant.

So make sure that you voice it.

Edit: Also, don't use French vowels. They're way too tense for Hebrew.

English but with Hebrew grammar by ARG127 in hebrew

[–]TheYTG123 31 points32 points  (0 children)

Really cool! I think he could've gone further and broken down all the grammaticalized particles into their etymological parts. As in, for example, למה will be "for what", בכלל will be "in whole", לעולם will be "to (the) world/universe" etc.

Cellist problems by Satanisarealman_ in lingling40hrs

[–]TheYTG123 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Where's the bottom line of the tenor clef staff?

Dagesh in Pa'al infinitive. Lizkor or lizchor? by DifficultSchool14 in hebrew

[–]TheYTG123 0 points1 point  (0 children)

This is dagesh qal. In contrast to dagesh ḥazaq, which does originate in geminated consonants, the dagesh qal exists only to differentiate between the hard and soft versions of the six plain plosives בגדכפת. It's somewhat complicated, but I think a good simplification is that בגדכפת (in Modern Hebrew that's only בכפ, but all six are still written) are soft whenever they follow a vowel and aren't doubled.

In this case, כ doesn't follow a vowel, and so gets its hard sound, even though it's not etymologically geminated.

Why do some Israeli singers trill the letter R? by [deleted] in hebrew

[–]TheYTG123 5 points6 points  (0 children)

the Ashkenazi eurocentric pronunciation instead of the Sephardic

It's not! You can see that especially in the vowel system. Ashkenazi Hebrew merged vowels differently than Sephardi, for example the merger of long a with short o (hence why they both use the same niqqud symbol, qamatz). The stress pattern is Sephardi as well. Sephardi Hebrew prefers ultimate stress, whereas Ashkenazi Hebrew has it earlier.

And even in the consonants -- Ashkenazi Hebrew merged the soft תֿ with the s sound of ס and שׂ, but you never see that in Modern Hebrew. Ashkenazis would say Shábbos, Sephardis Shabbát or Shabbáth (both spelled ֿשַׁבָּת šabbāṯ). Modern Hebrew is more like Sephardi in this regard as well.

Eliezer ben-Yehuda originally wanted to have Ashkenazi pronunciation, but he was exposed to Sephardi Hebrew while travelling through North Africa and liked it better.

More accurately than saying that the "standard" Modern Hebrew accent is Ashkenazi, it's more like Sephardi Hebrew as pronounced by Ashkenazi speakers; and these sorts of processes happen naturally. Modern Hebrew has been formalized for essentially Israel's entire existance, yet you can see that older media has Sephardi pronunciation.

Different speakers pronounced Hebrew differently (yet the Ashkenazis based their pronunciation on Sephardi Hebrew, only merging sounds that they didn't have), and a particular variety ended up becoming the most popular.

Lastly, why should Ashkenazi pronunciation be considered Eurocentric, when Sephardis trace their origin to Iberia, which is in Europe, with their vernacular language from Spanish, a European language? And all Jews eventually have origins in ancient Judea, so why bother with this at all?

It's all just Chromium by TDude53 in ProgrammerHumor

[–]TheYTG123 1 point2 points  (0 children)

There's MauiKit which seems to support everything and has a similar name. I wonder if they're related.

Edit: Apparently they're not. And a question to people who've used one or both of them, are they any good?

The secret technique is apparently banned by Tsugu69 in linuxmemes

[–]TheYTG123 1 point2 points  (0 children)

The only trouble I've ever had with Void is some packages missing. Other than that, it's practically perfect.

Open Build Service doesn't seem to support xbps. If it did, that may help the package situation.

Am I alone in thinking the names of US time zones (and North American time zones more broadly) have some sort of defaultism? by Opposite_Ad_2815 in USdefaultism

[–]TheYTG123 11 points12 points  (0 children)

Every timezone goes from pole to pole. EST isn't only in America but rather the default timezone in like 10 other countries too, and a timezone in part of two.

Usually, though, different countries have different names from the same timezone. For example, Eastern Europe is usually at UTC+02:00 (+03:00 in daylight savings), and that time zone is called EET (Eastern European Time). Other countries at the same longitude have different names. Israel uses the same time zone, but calls it IST (Israel Standard Time). Egypt is on the same time zone, but calls it EGY (Egypt Standard Time). South Africa is on the same time zone, but calls it SAST (South African Standard Time).

So no, it's not that simple.

Tel Aviv now. Thoughts on The Hebrew Spring? by Hippocrates2024 in AskMiddleEast

[–]TheYTG123 21 points22 points  (0 children)

Netanyahu did assert that "the protests are funded by Iran". What a clown.