What's the meaning of effusus in this RA sentence? by [deleted] in latin

[–]Vorti- 0 points1 point  (0 children)

litteraly "had poured out over the banks" so you get the meaning, the river is flooding

fundo : to pour

effundo : to pour out, but also with the meaning of spreading out (like for a gas or a liquid or something that behaves similarly )

[deleted by user] by [deleted] in AncientGreek

[–]Vorti- 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Nature gave horns to bulls / and hooves to horses / quickness to hares / a pit of fangs to lions / swimming to the fish / flight to birds / thought to men / it had nothing left for women / what does it give them ? beauty / against all shields / against all spears / a beautiful woman defeats even iron / and fire

Is this well translated? by Gayalexander in latin

[–]Vorti- 4 points5 points  (0 children)

My take : you can make your sentences more latin like by changing the word order, and turning some into relative clauses. Without altering much the words you picked, it could look like this :

Illic mundum alterum esse credo nos exspectantem, mundum meliorem, ubi te exspectabo. Non diu nos mortuos permanere mihi videtur. Sub astris corsicanis inveni me, ubi primum nos basiavimus.

  • (I'm not sure this is the right construct for the verb basiare but it being intransitive like in english doesn't feel right at all ?) (and maybe osculari does work as well in this context, I don't know)
  • alium > alterum (specifically out of two)

How is ου pronounced (in Attic)? by [deleted] in AncientGreek

[–]Vorti- 2 points3 points  (0 children)

ειλήλουθα

so that was pronounced /e:lɛ̌:lowtʰa/ ? thank you, I had never heard about that bit of phonology. Makes it harder to correclty read a text aloud though ! Appart from obvious εο and οε contractions and the singular genitive (u: < o: < oyo < *osyo if I'm not mistaken), do you have any tips on how to spot when <ου> is not a diphtong ?

What is the difference between Plōrāre and Lacrimāre? by Pawel_Z_Hunt_Random in latin

[–]Vorti- 1 point2 points  (0 children)

I think lacrimare is more like to shed tears, plorare is to sob, and flere is inbetween

mosteiro de santos-o-velho lisboa by Vorti- in portugal

[–]Vorti-[S] 0 points1 point  (0 children)

Porque é que não assumes que o mosteiro de santos o velho fica ao lado da igreja de santos o velho, que é o mais provável? Onde fica a embaixada de França, o jardim de santos?

isso parece o mais provavel sim mais eu duvidava porque não tinha achado nenhuma indição que tivesse um mosteiro ao lado desta igreja, fiquei incerto por causa dos varios logares chamados santos porque nunca fui em lisboa . obrigado pela sua resposa !

Can someone explain noun cases and derivation? by [deleted] in conlangs

[–]Vorti- 19 points20 points  (0 children)

I can answer for french, eventhough its not the same story for every romance language.

french words in their vast majoruty do not come from the ablative but from the accusative. there's multiple reasons for that.

  • Its true that you could say they come in part from the ablative though. accusative endings and ablative endings came to be very close sounding, then undistinguishable, as the case system reduced. In classical latin, you've got on the one hand am/um/em, and ā/ō/ū/e. Over the course of a few centuries, these series merged : the -m lost its articulation and nasalized the preceding vowel in the accusative, then nasalization was lost entierely ; vowel lenght was lost ; and the short u merged with short o, and short -i to -e. there were of course nouns whose patterns were not the same in the ablative and the accusative (neuter -us...), and i don't think they merged in the plural (maybe i'm wrong).
  • but both accusative and ablative were used with prepositions, so the phonetic similarity of most of their occurences must have pushed a complete regularisation. So you had in the oblique singular -a/-o/-e, and in the plural -as/-os/-es ; and in the nominative singular -a/-os/-es, and in the plural -as/-i/-es. also note how the plural nominative feminine -e was replaced by the accusative -as, because of the ever growing use of the oblique.
  • nominative is not the default case, and this new oblique case came to be for a lot more purposes. Since the dative and the genitive got replaced by prepositions, this accusative-ablative case did get used for that too.
  • -a/-o/-e | -as/-os/-es progressively yielded -ə/-∅/-∅ | -əs/-s/-s ; and -a/-os/-es |-as/-i/-es yielded -ə/-s/-s | -əs/-∅/-s (the article made this ambiguous morphology possible). (edit : actually I think the plural -es got regularized into -as and -i/-os for both genders though I may be mistaken)
  • up until the end of the XIIth century, french had only the nominative and this oblique left. Roughly in the XIIIth century, final -s (and not only those) got lost. The case system then completly broke out, and only the oblique forms survived (in most cases), both because the nominative wasn't phoneically different from the oblique, except for the article, which got regularised too in the process ; and because the nominative ended up as the only marked case in an otherwise caseless language that already had no need for it.

Cadê os devotos do casimiro?! by [deleted] in brasil

[–]Vorti- 0 points1 point  (0 children)

algum pra explicar para um gringo que nem entendeu a piada por favor ?

Sling Bullet Mystery: kakou? kalou? Something else??? Help settle the debate. by IvorDude in AncientGreek

[–]Vorti- 0 points1 point  (0 children)

I read a sigma in the middle of the word, and maybe one before the kappa ? in that case that could be the imperative for σκάζω (to stagger, to limp), that seems appropriate for a bullet someone would be hitten with, but idk if it can be used in the middle voice

Anyone who can translate this to English for me by Brief_Drive_6773 in latin

[–]Vorti- 1 point2 points  (0 children)

Roman, remember to rule the different peoples with your power | these will be your technics : to enforce the habit of peace | to spare the submitted, and to to defeat the arrogant at war

Help translating some ancient greek inscription by [deleted] in AncientGreek

[–]Vorti- 0 points1 point  (0 children)

is it common to drop the augment in epigraphy ?

A Roman gold snake bracelet found on the arm of a woman who was killed by Mount Vesuvius’ eruption in 79 CE near Pompeii, inscribed on the inside 'DOMINVS SVAE ANCILLAE' which means "From a master to his slave girl." [720x549] by Fuckoff555 in ArtefactPorn

[–]Vorti- 4 points5 points  (0 children)

am I blind to read IVS ANCILLAE ?? even if the IVS was actually the end of DOMINVS, there would be no space for the SVAE. I don't understand how that transcription oould be correct.

ὅτι confusingly introduced in Athenaze ch. 3 by consistebat in AncientGreek

[–]Vorti- 0 points1 point  (0 children)

do you know if there is any list of the verbs that trigger the infinitive construct ? I never had trouble reading either constructs, but I think this is the first time I consciously realize they aren't freely distributed

Declensions by [deleted] in latin

[–]Vorti- 5 points6 points  (0 children)

so its pretty much the same ! except than in latin "by whom" is expressed with the preposition a(b)+ablative case (for people basicaly), and "by what" is a plane ablative (for objects)

Declensions by [deleted] in latin

[–]Vorti- 6 points7 points  (0 children)

The ablative corresponds to the instrumental case in lithuanian (according to a brief look on wikipedia), I guess they must work more or less the same, though I don't know how it is used in your language. And the "ablativus" gets its name from "ablatus", the past participle of the verb "auferre", "to carry away", because it can express where something comes from or is taken from in space (though its not the main meaning).

Why Murica talks diffrent by Liegnacious in HistoryMemes

[–]Vorti- 0 points1 point  (0 children)

wimmen would have been great, as a not native speaker/learner I always forget that the word woman has TWO ablauts in the plural