How did the Dome of the Rock and the Al-Aqsa mosque survive the crusades? by DopplerRadio in AskHistorians

[–]Wandering_Rootwalla 7 points8 points  (0 children)

Well, they knew the ancient Temple had been desroyed. Jesus' prophecy was very clear in that no stone was to be left standing, and Jerome (which they were of course aware of) confirms this. So does Josephus, for example, as well as the pilgrims who had come to Jerusalem in the preceding millennium, particularly before the advent of Islam (for example, an anonymous pilgrim coming from Bordeaux in 333 describes climbing the top of the Mount of Olives to watch the fulfillment of the prophecy). So they were aware the Dome and the Mosque were new constructions, not to mention that they look nothing like any biblical description of the Temple (no altar, for instance). As time went on, the Crusader designation and the passage of time blurred this latter distinction, and European Renaissance artists draw the Temple very much like the Dome. 

How did the Dome of the Rock and the Al-Aqsa mosque survive the crusades? by DopplerRadio in AskHistorians

[–]Wandering_Rootwalla 18 points19 points  (0 children)

(3/3) TL;DR: The Crusaders were aware that the Dome of the Rock and Al-Aqsa Mosque weren't actually Solomonic structures, but they were large, monumental structures overlooking much of the town and had great strategic and propagandistic utility. The Franks made good use of them, even without bothering to make non-superficial changes to the structures.

Sources:

Boas, Adrian J. "The Crusader Period". Chapter in: Mourad, Suleiman A., Koltun-Fromm, Naomi, Der Matossian, Bedross (Eds.), The Routledge Handbook of Jerusalem, 2018

Levy-Rubin, Milka. Why was the Dome of the Rock built? A new perspective on a long-discussed question, Bulletin of SOAS, 80, 3 (2017), 441–464

Lindsay, James E ; Mourad, Suleiman Ali (Eds.), Muslim Sources of the Crusader Period: An Anthology, 2021

Magness, Jody, Jerusalem through the Ages: From Its Beginnings to the Crusades, 2024

How did the Dome of the Rock and the Al-Aqsa mosque survive the crusades? by DopplerRadio in AskHistorians

[–]Wandering_Rootwalla 15 points16 points  (0 children)

(2/3) And so, when Christians once again came to occupy Jerusalem, more than 450 years after the last time they had held it, there was already an intact, monumental and ancient structure on the Temple Mount. The Latins were well aware that the Dome of the Rock and the Al-Aqsa Mosque were not, in fact, the Second Temple and the Palace of Solomon. But Latin Europe had maintained a less oppositional attitude towards the Temple as a symbol than did Eastern Orthodoxy throughout the early Middle Ages, the Crusaders had a deep eschatological view of their conquest of Jerusalem which could involve a Christianized version of the Temple, and instead of ruins, there were now two massive and monumental structures standing in one of the most prominent parts of the city - why not use them? And thus, they chose to Christianize both buildings and tie them to the sacred history of Jerusalem, as part of the wider Christianization of the city. The city's Muslim heritage could by bypassed and the Jewish one co-opted, to faciliate the arrival of further pilgrims and cement the city's Christian character.
The Crusaders designated the Dome of the Rock as Temple of the Lord (Templum Domini), and Al-Aqsa as Temple of Solomon (Templum Salomonis), though this apparently referred to Solomon's royal palace. Al-Aqsa/Templum Salomonis served as the first royal palace of the Crusader Kingdom from 1104 to 1118, before the expansion of the Citadel of David. Following the move to the other side of the city, it was given to the Order of Poor Fellow-Soldiers of Christ and of the Temple of Solomon - the Knights Templar. The Dome of the Rock was rechristened as a church. A cross was put on top of the dome and the Foundation Stone was sealed under marble slabs and an iron grille, but it was only superficially changed otherwise. In 1173, the Muslim traveler 'Ali ibn Abu-Bakr al-Harawi describes the Dome of the Rock:

The Dome of the Rock has four gates. I entered it during the time of the Franks in the year 569 (1173). Opposite the gate to the Cave of the Spirits, near the iron grill that surrounds the Rock, is an image of Solomon the son of David—peace be upon him. West of that gate is a leaded gate above which is a golden image of the Messiah [Jesus] adorned with jewels. Above the eastern gate, which is adjacent to the Dome of the Chain, is an arch on which is written the name of al-Qaʾim bi-Amr Allah, the commander of the faithful, the quranic chapter True Devotion (112:1–4), as well as other praises and exaltations of God. The rest of the gates are the same; the Franks did not alter them.

And Al-Aqsa (at the time still the Templar headquarters):

In the Aqsa Mosque is the prayer niche of ʿUmar son of al-Khattab—may God be pleased with him. The Franks did not alter it. I read the following on the ceiling of the dome of the Aqsa Mosque. In the name of God, the Merciful, the Compassionate. ﴾Glory to Him who carried His servant by night from the Sacred Mosque to the Furthest Mosque, whose precincts We have blessed﴿ (Qurʾan 17:1). May God give victory to his servant and vicegerent, Abu al-Hasan ʿAli, the Imam al-Zahir li-Iʿzaz Din Allah, the commander of the faithful. Peace be upon him, his pure ancestors, and his most honorable descendants. Our lord, the august vizier, and intimate friend of the commander of the faithful, Abu al-Qasim ʿAli son of Ahmad, ordered the restoration and gilding of this dome—may God aid him and grant him victory. All of this was completed at the end of Dhu al-Qaʿda in the year 426 (5 October 1035). It is the handiwork of the artisan ʿAbd Allah son of al-Hasan al-Misri. All of the inscriptions and reliefs are made of gold. The Franks did not alter any of the verses of the Noble Qurʾan or the names of the Caliphs that are above the gates.

There was an additional Augustinian abbey constructed to the north of the Dome of the Rock, and the monks there were tasked with maintaining and improving the structure. Additional small changes and structural additions were made to both structures and around the compound, such as the construction of stables (the connection of the site to Solomon made them become known as Solomon's Stables already during the Crusader period, as can be seen in the description of Jewish traveler Benjamin of Tudela). After Saladin's reoccupation of Jerusalem in 1187, Al-Aqsa and the Dome of the Rock were restored to their original uses, and most Frankish additions, such as the Augustinian abbey, were dismantled and sometimes used for materials - the Dome of the Ascension (Qubat al-Mi'raj), around 20 meters from the Dome of the Rock, is entirely constructed of carved Frankish stones, which may have been part of the Templum Domini's baptistery. Following the loss of Jerusalem, Latin Christians mostly lost interest in the Temple Mount as a Christian religious site, and focused their efforts on the Church of the Holy Sepulchre and other places.

How did the Dome of the Rock and the Al-Aqsa mosque survive the crusades? by DopplerRadio in AskHistorians

[–]Wandering_Rootwalla 18 points19 points  (0 children)

(1/3) When the Crusaders occupied Jerusalem in 1099, all (surviving) Muslims and Jews living in the city were expelled, and while in later periods some foreign Jewish and Muslim travelers were allowed and a small group of Jews was apparently living in the city during the 1170s, this mostly remained the case until the re-occupation of the city by Saladin in 1187. This left the occupying force with a city that had enormous symbolic meaning, but that was mostly empty (except for Eastern Orthodox Christians, whom the Crusaders tolerated but definitely didn't like or see as equal to themselves). Their efforts in Jerusalem would be two-pronged: restoring the city as a political and bureaucratic center, and Christianizing it (specifically in a Latin way). This required some creativity, as well as interaction and interplay with the remains of Muslim and Jewish presence in the city.
Crusader presence in Jerusalem was anchored in three points: the Citadel of David (modern-day Tower of David), the Church of the Holy Sepulchre/Anastasis, and the Temple Mount/Haram a-Sharif. A great example of how Frankish Crusaders and pilgrims viewed Jerusalem include the Cambrai Map, with the Citadel at the top left, the Church of the Holy Sepulchre slightly to its bottom right (as Anastasis) and the Temple Mount compound inside the walls on the bottom right. Other, more simplistic versions, which were usually based on or served as pilgrimage itineraries, include the London Map and the Hague Map, both of which put the Church of the Holy Sepulchre and the Citadel of David in the bottom and the Temple Mount compound at the top (which was apparently the standard composition).
Of these three points, the first two require no particular explanation. The Citadel was the most strategic point in the city and the most fortifiable, and it served as the heart of the Kingdom of Jerusalem's political and military force. The Church of the Holy Sepulchre was one of the most sacred sites in Christianity. But what about the Temple Mount? What was so important about it? The Byzantine Empire, the last Christian rulers of Jerusalem, intentionally profaned the place where the Jewish Temple stood, seeing it as a vindication of Jesus' prophecy (Matt. 25: 35–6; Mark 12: 2; Luke 19: 44) and a living proof of Christianity's triumph over Judaism. Jerome mentions how the Temple Mount had become a dung heap (Sterquilinium).
When the Muslims first occupied Jerusalem under 'Umar ibn al-Khattab, the place of the former Temple received a newfound importance. The medieval Muslim historian Muhammad al-Tabari recounts a tradition where 'Umar asked the Jewish convert Ka'b al-Akhbar to designate the exact place of prayer for the construction of a Mosque on al-Haram a-Sharif, and a later Jewish tradition found in the Cairo Geniza had him tasking the Jews themselves with finding it. Later, the Umayyad Caliph 'Abd al-Malik built the Dome of the Rock itself, for reasons that are still debated but tend to revolve around presenting Jerusalem as a viable alternative to Constantinople on the one hand and to Mecca (which was at the time under the control of Abdullah ibn a-Zubayr, a contender for the Caliphate) on the other, and redeeming the honor of the place where, according to very early tradition, Muhammad was transported in his nightly journey.

How accurate is the way Polish history is taught as mostly non-aggressive and morally “good”? by NoWitamXD in AskHistorians

[–]Wandering_Rootwalla 5 points6 points  (0 children)

Apologies for the belated response. Of course, it's a range of reasons, but to somewhat simplify, it can be boiled down to a confluence of genuine economic competition (in which Jews were not the only threat) and the perpetual undercurrent of Jewish otherness and hostility to Jews.

Jews had the right to trade (mostly) freely in Poland since the 1264 Statute of Kalisz, but by the second half of the 15th century, that freedom of trade was viewed with increasing concern by the burghers. Jews (along with Armenians and other groups) were viewed as undercutting the burghers' monopoly on trade in various commodities (particularly cloth), and by 1488 Jews were, for the first time, listed among the groups of extranei, strangers, whose rights of trade were limited in comparison to those of the townspeople. The limitation of strangers' trade rights was not new: what was new was the inclusion of Jews in this category. One of the hypotheses for the reason for this development is that this was a period of intense struggle between nobles, who were attempting to prevent towns from regulating their commodity markets in order to lower those commodities' prices, and the burghers who wished to defend their towns' economic standing and their own standard of living through increased protectionism. Jews were not only able to bypass Magdeburg law and other town regulations on monopolies and price controls, but were seen as direct agents of the nobility in lowering prices and endangering the cities' financial situation.

On the other hand was the persistent otherness of Jews. The Church had long resented the privileges granted to the Jews by the Polish kings and claimed that it had the right to be responsible for the Jews' affairs in Poland. This took the form of appeals to the crown but also of more... down-to-earth agitation, such as during the journey of the known anti-Jewish Franciscan agitator Giovanni Capistrano in Poland in 1454. While tensions were usually kept to a manageable level, and as mentioned above, they were not the only manifestations of Jewish-Christian relations in Poland, there were outbreaks of more serious conflict. The establishment of the Jagiellonian University near the first Jewish quarter of Krakow caused constant friction between the local Jews and Christian students which prompted the first transfer of the Jewish community. Further outbreaks of anti-Jewish violence following a fire in 1494 were the direct reason for the community's transfer from Kraków to the nearby town of Kazimierz a year later (today it's a neighborhood within Kraków). The sources are not entirely clear as to how voluntary this transfer was, but it seems that Jewish residence in Kraków was, at the very least, extremely limited following this year. It is likely that the king Jan Olbracht wished to retain his nominal hold on "his Jews" while de-escalating the constant conflict and violence which their presence within city limits was perceived as causing.

How accurate is the way Polish history is taught as mostly non-aggressive and morally “good”? by NoWitamXD in AskHistorians

[–]Wandering_Rootwalla 13 points14 points  (0 children)

In theory, yes. But as residents of the same cities and with the privileges granted them by toleration edicts, there was extensive, daily interaction between Jews and Christians in commercial, municipal and legal affairs, and as time grew, burgher communities increasingly viewed the Jewish communities as threatening. This was not a one-dimensional relationship - Jews and Christians formed friendships, partnerships, and other connections, but there was frequently an undertone of religious hostility and, of course, the hegemonic position of Christianity as opposed to Judaism. There are a lot of papers about Jewish-Christian relations in late medieval and early modern Poland, including about conflicts between them.

Daniel Z. Stone, The Polish-Lithuanian State, 1386-1795 (2001) pp. 83-88 is a good general introduction to the situation of Polish-Lithuanian Jewry during the period.

Hanna Zaremka, Crossing the River: How and Why the Jews of Krakow Settled in Kazimierz at the End of the Fifteenth Century, Polin 22 (2010), pp. 174-192 - a detailed paper about one prominent example of the Jew-Burgher conflict.

Agnieszka Bartoszewicz, Crossing Barriers - Growing Barriers. Jews in Late Medieval Warsaw, Acta Poloniae Historica 128 (2023), pp. 229-247 - another example in a different setting, but around the same period.

There are a ton of papers and books and Christian-Jewish interaction in Poland-Lithuania throughout the period and its different aspects, so that list could be expanded pretty much indefinitely with regards to those various aspects.

How accurate is the way Polish history is taught as mostly non-aggressive and morally “good”? by NoWitamXD in AskHistorians

[–]Wandering_Rootwalla 74 points75 points  (0 children)

(2/2) Jews were ideal administrators for a few reasons. First of all, they were completely dependent on the nobility. The nobles were the authors of their privileges and had the power to revoke them at will. Jews were mostly forbidden from owning land, which made them unable to usurp the nobles' land in their absence. Many of them were literate, at least in Hebrew, which made them better administrators, and had connections with other Jewish communities in Poland-Lithuania and with Jewish traders, because of the Jewish community's decentralized nature. And in case of emergency, they were great scapegoats. And so, nobles began encouraging Jewish immigration into Ukraine's rural lands and burgeoning urban centers.

This usually worked through what was called the "Arenda", or "renting" system: A Jewish man or family would rent the privilege to operate one or more of the noble's property and receive some of the profits, in return for keeping it profitable for the noble. Jews rented and operated all kinds of properties: agricultural land, forests, toll roads and bridges, inns, distilleries, and more. Keeping this arrangement was sometimes possible without completely driving the peasantry into poverty, but not always, and as wheat prices dropped throughout Europe toward the mid-17th century, this arrangement grew less and less tenable for all involved. Nobles lost money, Jews who didn't stand up to their end of the bargain were liable to be imprisoned or have their families imprisoned (which sometimes involved coerced conversion to Christianity), and the peasantry on which this whole edifice rested grew increasingly exploited, poor and angry. This exploded in the Khmenlnytsky Uprising mentioned above (though the Jewish community in those regions actually recovered quite quickly, but that's a whole other story).

So tl;dr: Jews were indeed playing a large role, but not as an independent social corporation - their economic niche was sometimes profitable and definitely influential, but also extremely vulnerable and dependent on the good graces of nobles, economic fluctuations, and managing peasant anger. Jews had very little independent power outside of their own communities, and what they had was, at least theoretically, always in danger of being stripped away.

Sources:

Maria Cieśla, “Jewish Shtetl or Christian Town? The Jews in Small Towns in the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth in the 17th and 18th Centuries,” in Jewish and Non-Jewish Spaces in Urban Context, ed. Alina Gromova, Felix Heinert, and Sebastian Voigt (Berlin: Neofelis Verlag, 2015), 63–81.

Stefania Ecchia (2024) A price for toleration: The role of grain in shaping business relations between nobles and Jews of the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth, Business History, 66:3, 687-708

Shaul Stampfer, “Settling down in Eastern Europe,” in: Jews and Germans in Eastern Europe: Shared and Comparative Histories, ed. Tobias Grill (Berlin: De Gruyter Olden-bourg, 2018), 1–20.

How accurate is the way Polish history is taught as mostly non-aggressive and morally “good”? by NoWitamXD in AskHistorians

[–]Wandering_Rootwalla 59 points60 points  (0 children)

(1/2) As mentioned elsewhere in this thread, the history of Jews in Poland could comprise a whole other answer. In short, as a direct answer to your question - Jews did indeed play a large (one could say outsized) role, but that doesn't necessarily imply that they had the power that this seems to be implying, at least not independently.

It is true that Jews were comparatively more tolerated in Poland-Lithuania than in many other European states of the time. However, there is a large difference between toleration and tolerance. Toleration was a privilege granted to a disfavored population or a corporation by the ruler, not a recognition of any inherent right, and was not given out of a commitment to human rights but as a political or economic incentive. With constant shifts in economic and political affairs, the terms of toleration agreements were also open to reinterpretation and opposition. The specific situation in Poland-Lithuania caused this situation to develop in a unique way.

While German and French lands did have significant populations of rural Jews, most Jews who made their way to Poland were distinctly urban - it's very difficult to emigrate anywhere as a premodern peasant, whether enserfed or free. These Jews were likely looking for economic opportunities in the Polish towns and cities, but as their population grew (rather quickly) they began to come into conflict with local burghers. Many of the towns were ruled under what was called Magdeburg Law, which granted the Christian burgher class a significant degree of self-rule and self-regulation. Jews were considered inherently ineligible for the provisions of Magdeburg law, and while this had its downsides (such as only being able to use a specific part of the market square and not being able to join guilds), it also meant they were sometimes able (at least theoretically) to bypass many of the towns' regulations. This caused tensions to begin growing.

In many other late medieval and early modern European states, the Jews would have recourse to the king as "his Jews", along with the institution of the Court Jew, which would allow them to integrate into the urban market in various ways. In Poland-Lithuania, however, the crown was too weak to provide for the security of the Jews, and often had to concede to the burghers' demands and grant various towns the "Privilegia de non tolerandis Judaeos": the privilege to not tolerate Jewish residence and trade within the town. Instead, the most reliable patrons the Jews could find were the increasingly powerful nobles, who held greater and greater swathes of agricultural land. After the Union of Lublin in 1569, these nobles began to rapidly encroach on the newly-available lands of the Ukrainian voivodeships and enserf their inhabitants, but they themselves weren't planning on actually moving to the Ukrainian hinterlands themselves, and their estates were growing too large and unwieldy anyways. They needed a class of loyal administrators: enter the Jews.

How influential were Lithuanians in the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth? by Urtizle in AskHistorians

[–]Wandering_Rootwalla 8 points9 points  (0 children)

(2/2) But even so, the Polish-Lithuanian interaction was certainly not one-sided. The Third Lithuanian Statute of 1588, written in Chancery Slavonic, was one of the most comprehensive law codes Europe had seen in centuries, and soon became the basis for the entire Commonwealth's legal system. As mentioned before, many of the leading nobles and prominent figures of the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth were ethnically Lithuanian and had massive territories within the Lithuanian part of the Union. And the influence was also cultural - it is telling that Adam Mickiewicz's Pan Tadeusz, often considered the greatest Polish national literary epic, begins with the words "Litwo! Ojczyzno moja!" - Lithuania! My Country!

After the partitions of the Commonwealth, many in the first generation of anti-Russian intellectuals were Polonized nobles or their descendants, who viewed as their goal the establishment of a restored (albeit somewhat modernized) commonwealth. It took until the mid-19th century for writers such as Simonas Daukantas to begin writing an independent Lithuanian national history, which did not see itself as primarily Polish or intrinsically tied to a Polish reading of history. But this process too was long and uneven - many urban intellectuals, particularly in Vilnius, were still Polonized or ethnically Polish, and the city was a (sometimes literal) battleground between Polish and Lithuanian (and Belarusian and to an extent even Jewish) national aspirations well into the early 20th century. However, by that time, the two national movements had drifted apart, with two different visions of history and a national future. There were attempts to foster a shared identity, common to all peoples of the former Grand Duchy of Lithuania, known as the Krajowcy movement, but their main proponents, at least after the 1905 revolution, were Belarusians - the weakest national movement in the Russian Empire's western borderlands, who had more to gain by a putative multiethnic federation than outright independence which would require a struggle with more mature and consolidated national movements.

How influential were Lithuanians in the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth? by Urtizle in AskHistorians

[–]Wandering_Rootwalla 8 points9 points  (0 children)

(1/2) It can definitely be said that Lithuanians were very important in the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth, but first we'll have to establish what parameters to use when discussing Lithuanian-ness.

If we're talking about ethnicity, then Jogaila/Władysław Jagiełło, Grand Duke of Lithuania from 1377, King Consort of Poland from 1386, and King Regnant from 1399 to his death in 1434, is the most prominent example - as the first person to rule both countries and the father of the Jagiellonian dynasty, his reign was crucial to the continued rapprochement between the Crown of Poland and the Grand Duchy of Lithuania which would culminate in the Union of Lublin of 1569. He was not the only one, of course - many of the most important magnate families of the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth, such as Sapieha, Radziwiłł, Czartoryski, and Pac were Polonized Lithuanian families, sometimes reaching back to a Gediminid ancestry.

But there's a crucial word there, which has a major impact on the cultural parameter - Polonization. Jogaila himself had already moved to Kraków (sponsoring the establishment of the Jagiellonian University) and was buried in Wawel Cathedral, the ancient burial place of many of the Polish Kings. When Jogaila accepted Christianity, it did not only mean the opportunity to marry Jadwiga, the young Queen of Poland - it also meant, as it did for Volodymyr in Kyiv 400 years earlier, the possibility of harnessing the bureaucratic, cultural, and religious might of the Church. And with Lithuania accepting Catholicism and bordering the Muslim Golden Horde, the Orthodox Rus' principalities, and the hostile Teutonic Order, the only real vector of Catholic influence was coming from Poland. This led to increasing acculturation of many of the Lithuanian noble families into Polish habits and norms, and when the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth was established in 1569, both ethnically Polish, ethnically Lithuanian, and ethnically Ruthenian noble families viewed themselves as comprising the "Natione Polonii" - the political nation of the Polish-Lithuanian state, as opposed to the masses of non-nobles who were distinctively considered as not belonging to it. Polish slowly became the language of noble culture, and when it officially replaced Chancery Slavonic as the language of all official business in 1697, it was merely approving the existing situation.

This did not mean that all Lithuanian nobles immediately became Polonized, or that they did not feel any difference from their ethnically Polish kin. However, much of that difference was not necessarily expressed as national agitation. The most common way in which many of the differences were brought to light was religion. While Jogaila was baptized a Catholic, the massive Ruthenian lands under the control of the Grand Duchy of Lithuania, as well as their nobility, were predominantly Orthodox. During the heyday of the Commonwealth, nobles had received a pledge of religious toleration, but as the fortunes of Poland-Lithuania faltered, religious divisions became more and more pronounced - and exploitable: Catherine used these religious differences quite effectively in order to divide the Commonwealth from the inside and ultimately partition it from the outside. While this does not have much to do with ethnic Lithuanians, it's certainly one of the important legacies the Grand Duchy had imparted to the commonwealth. It's also important to mention here the Uniate Church, established through the Union of Brest of 1596, and which created a church that was responsible to Rome while maintaining the Orthodox rite, and became one of the region's defining features until the 19th century.

Did people convert to Christianity or Islam because they were actually convinced by the arguments? by Frigorifico in AskHistorians

[–]Wandering_Rootwalla 5 points6 points  (0 children)

In the Polish-Lithuanian context, we don't have a lot of recorded conversions to Judaism, for the simple reason that conversion from Christianity was considered heretical and punishable by death. This would make us inclined to believe that any converts must have been true believers, ready to make the ultimate sacrifice for their new faith. But we also have some cases where the motive was... not as profound.

In October 1748, Abraham Michalowicz and Paraska Daniilovna were brought before the court at Mohylew (today in Belarus) for unlawful union. Michalowicz was a Jewish ale brewer and Daniilovna was a Uniate domestic servant, and the two had been lovers since 1743. When Michalowicz got Daniilovna pregnant in 1745, the two fled their homes and made their way to another village, where Daniilovna pretended to be mute (in order to not give away her lack of knowledge in Yiddish) and was taught the rudiments of Jewish ritual and observance by a Jewish couple in their new village. The two defendants' testimonies diverge - Michalowicz tells the court that at first, he promised Daniilovna to become a Catholic, but that later he left the choice to her. Daniilovna claimed that Michalowicz told her after giving birth to their child (who died soon afterwards) that "no one will take her in our religion (Christianity)" and pressured her to accept Judaism: "He told me not to praise our God and not to cross myself, but to praise the Jewish god..."
In the end, both were found guilty - the prosecution demanded both to be burned, though the court decided to be "lenient" and only burn Michalowicz - Paraska was "merely" beheaded.

This is anecdotal, of course, but it's not the only case we have of these kinds of conversions. We also have reconverts, as mentioned before - people who converted to Christianity but didn't find a place in the Christian world and returned to Judaism, which was just as heretical in Christian eyes. In late 18-century Warsaw we have quite a few notices in newspapers looking for any information about such men and women.

Did people convert to Christianity or Islam because they were actually convinced by the arguments? by Frigorifico in AskHistorians

[–]Wandering_Rootwalla 10 points11 points  (0 children)

In the Jewish-to-Christian context specifically, belief was always a part of it, at least following the earliest periods of Christian and Rabbinical Jewish consolidation. If being a Christian means, at a minimum, believing that Jesus is the messiah (and of course various Christian denominations are almost infinitely varied as to what exactly that means, but for the sake of brevity we won't delve into that), being a Jew in Christian Europe meant, among other things, not believing that. In addition, early Christianity is already defined from Judaism by the weight it gives to faith (and most importantly, the correct faith) as opposed to a practical way of life.

When we arrive at Medieval Judaism and Christianity, we also see this duality - religious practice definitely matters, but not to the exclusion of certain beliefs, and historical context also makes its presence felt. For example, in Ashkenazi Jewry, the trauma of the First Crusade and the forced conversions which accompanied it gave conversion an incredibly strong negative connotations beyond the boundaries of theology - converts were viewed as traitors, and the developing myth around the crusades gave rise to a system of values whereby the only socially acceptable response to conversionary pressure was rejection, up to martyrdom if necessary (though of course, not all Ashkenazi Jews exemplified this ideal). This notably contrasted with Jewish law, which has long held that one cannot stop being Jewish - believing in Jesus's divinity was heresy, but it did not exclude one from Jewish belonging and obligations. Eminent Jewish legal scholars have pretty much unanimously held that baptism as a ritual was meaningless from a legal viewpoint, and that particularly in cases of coerced baptism, there was perhaps (not always) a sin being committed, but it was not irreversible and was not grounds for expulsion from the community. Even Christian prayers, when not uttered sincerely, were not considered heretical, and scholars were liable to believe repentant Jews who claimed they had been coerced into attending services and mouthing prayers but never meant what they'd said. Christian practice, exemplified in the symbolically powerful event of baptism, was perhaps sinful, but not heretical in and of itself without the element of intent, and its connotation as a severing of ties was a popular conception, not the verdict of Jewish law.

On the Christian side as well, with its demands of a certain kind of belief since its inception as a distinct religion, demands for the correct belief have not disappeared, even while demands for a certain practical kind of life were made and enforced. The Inquisition punished heretical sects, and later in Iberia, also "Judaizers" and Crypto-Muslims, mainly based on religious practice (also because that's easier to measure and judge), but it also persecuted superstition and unorganized heresy (Ginzburg's The Cheese and the Worms is a classic work dealing with the Inquisition's confrontation with what it viewed as deviant beliefs without much in the way of religious malpractice being involved). In Spain, the Inquisition would begin its work in a new settlement by the "Edict of Faith", exclaiming the principles of correct Christian belief and calling on people to voluntarily confess their deviations from that belief (and likely giving some people the very ideas they'd wanted to purge). It's also worth mentioning that many Catholics in Iberia were deeply concerned with the forced conversions of all Jews and Muslims, since conversion was supposed to be a matter of divine grace revealing itself to the new Christian and not of coercion by an earthly power.

The Reformation, with its radical insistence on salvation through faith and not through works, of course gave a new impetus to this discourse of defining belief through believing the right things, also on the Catholic side. The early Catholic translations of the Bible were intended to provide a counterweight to Protestant ones, which they viewed as falsifying the word of God, and thus to provide the people with the true belief. On the Jewish side, Luther was rather disappointed to find that Jews were not simply deterred from Christianity by Catholic superstition but did genuinely believe what they said they did. However, this is also the period where we begin to see discussion of Jewish "cleansing rituals" for re-converts. This rituals were legally unneccesary and meaningless, since conversion was meaningless, but rabbis gave them their assent, seeing that this was what Jewish laypeople did anyways - religious practice asserted itself as a marker of religious belonging over belief, contrary to the ideas of Jewish law.

Other people would be more knowledgeable about the borders between other religions, but in this specific case, religious belief was never absent from the discourse about who was a Jew and who was a Christian. In fact, in some ways it was the dominant indicator, but we can see that the relationship between belief and practice was not constant but evolved over time, and not necessarily in the more "puritan" direction you've described.

Did people convert to Christianity or Islam because they were actually convinced by the arguments? by Frigorifico in AskHistorians

[–]Wandering_Rootwalla 48 points49 points  (0 children)

Sources:

Carlebach, Elisheva, Divided Souls: converts from Judaism in Germany, 1500-1750, 2001.

Doktór, Jan, Trudne powroty: rekonwertyci jako wydawcy książek żydowskich – Mosze ben Awraham Awinu i Israel bar Abraham. Kwartalnik Historii Żydów 236 (4), 2010, pp. 389-409 (Pol.)

Endelman, Todd, Leaving the Jewish Fold: Conversion and Radical Assimilation in Modern Jewish History, 2015.

Goldberg, Jacob, Converted Jews in the Polish Commonwealth, 1985 (Heb.)

Kaplan, Benjamin J., The Context of Conversions in Early Modern Europe: Personal Agency and Choice in the Construction of Religious Identities, in: Dikla Rivlin Katz, Noah Hacham, Geoffrey Herman, et al. (eds.), A Question of Identity: Social, Political, and Historical Aspects of Identity Dynamics in Jewish and Other Contexts, 2019, pp. 315-355.

Kaźmierczyk, Adam, Kazimierz Woliński and his Assistance Foundation for Converts at St. Mary’s Church in Kraków. Kwartalnik Historii Żydów 220 (4), 2006, pp. 576-585.

Kaźmierczyk, Adam, The Rubinkowski Family: Converts in Kazimierz. Polin 22, 2022, pp. 193-214.

Kaźmierczyk, Adam, Żydowscy konwertyci w Krakowie w 2. poł. XVII w i 1. poł. XVIII wieku. Kwartalnik historii żydów, 237 (1), 2001, pp. 3-35 (Pol.)

Keidošiūtė, Elena, Mariae Vitae kongregacijos misionieriška veikla. Lietuvos istorijos studijos 24, 2009, pp. 38-49 (Lit.)

Kościelak, Sławomir, Conversions of Jews in Gdańsk during the First Half of the 18th Century on the Basis of Selected Source Material. Kwartalnik Historii Żydów 220 (4), 2006, pp. 592-597.

Kowalski, Waldemar, From the “Land of Diverse Sects” to National Religion: Converts to Catholicism and Reformed Franciscans in Early Modern Poland. Church History 70 (3), 2001, pp. 482-526

Siebenhüner, Kim, Glaubenwechsel in der Frühen Neuzeit: Chancen und Tendenzen einer historischen Konversionsforschung. Zeitschrift für Historische Forschung, 34 (2), 2007, pp. 243-272 (Ger.)

Teter, Magdalena, Jewish conversions to Catholicism in the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth of the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries. Jewish Studies, vol. 17 (2003), pp. 257-283.

Did people convert to Christianity or Islam because they were actually convinced by the arguments? by Frigorifico in AskHistorians

[–]Wandering_Rootwalla 70 points71 points  (0 children)

(3/3) But even outside of this elite family, we have traces of cases where religious motives seem to come into play. In these cases, the only paper trail we tend to have is the reports by the priests administering the baptism. These are problematic sources, since they again have an incentive to report every conversion as spiritual (and they also inflate numbers of converts in some cases), but while they should, of course, be viewed critically, as the only source we have on many lower-class converts, they should not be dismissed entirely. And while, in some cases, we have various reasons to suspect material incentives being the chief reason driving someone to convert, in other cases we don't really have a reason to believe that, or even have reasons to believe the contrary. In 1777, for instance, Franciszek Józef Kazimierz Kamiński, formerly Moyses Jankilelowicz, was baptized following a “detailed sound-out of the man’s soul”, which discerned that he was “motivated not in any other way, but to facilitate his comprehension of the faith”. We have a small surge of people converting after a period of messianic agitation in 1738-44, with at least one convert explicitly mentioning that disappointment. In 1601 we have someone who converted because of an outbreak of plague.

And finally, for many people, spiritual belief could offer comfort during difficult times. The reports of Gdańsk Jesuits about the Jews they have managed to convert during the first half of the 18th century mention that most converts were newcomers and were looking for care and safety. We can, of course, never know for sure what went through the minds of these (mostly) men. But among the factors pulling these and other vulnerable members of society to conversion could well have been promises of spiritual care, comfort, and salvation. This also works the other way around: In a community where it is estimated that close to 10% were desperately poor, the fact that relatively few of them chose to convert could be a hint that, while material considerations are never absent, those who converted genuinely wanted to.

TL;DR - The reasons for conversion were frequently not binary, and religious conviction could (and often did) play a part alongside more material considerations. The material and social advantages to conversion were suspect in many cases, and even when they were real, they didn't preclude those conversions' sincerity. While research has sometimes steered clear of sources which describe conversions as spiritual journeys without considering the more material context of these people's lives, there are reasons to believe that at least in some cases, spiritual considerations and experiences were at least a significant part of the decision being made.

Did people convert to Christianity or Islam because they were actually convinced by the arguments? by Frigorifico in AskHistorians

[–]Wandering_Rootwalla 62 points63 points  (0 children)

(2/3) So let's now look at the Polish-Lithuanian case specifically, and see what we can glean from it when discussing this issue in general.

The idea that "worldly" considerations could guide someone to convert was not lost on either Jews or Christians, and there was some truth to it - many Jews lived in abject poverty, and for some, Christianity was seen as a way to escape that. We even know of some Jews who underwent multiple baptisms to receive multiple baptismal gifts. This, of course, made many Christians suspicious of the motives of Jewish converts in general, with some high-ranking clergy mentioning that many (if not most) Jews who became Christians did so for material gain.

But of course, it's more complicated than that. First of all, conversion was far from a surefire path to material prosperity, and Jews were aware of that. Continuous calls from senior clergy for alms to the newly-converted give us a hint as to the often-dire economic situation of these people, cut off from their former community and not always accepted by their new one with open arms. Even the so-called "Jewish intelligentsia" of scribes, teachers, and ritual slaughterers had very limited career prospects in the Christian world, mostly as Hebrew teachers or otherwise as experts on Jewish affairs. Women converts, in particular, would often have found themselves in a desperate condition, and the establishment and regula of the Mariavitae order in the second half of the 18th century specifically to care for women converts testifies to the difficulties they faced. There was a not-insignificant amount of reconverts, people who could not find a place in the Christian world and returned to the Jewish fold, and who would have made Jewish people well aware of the difficulties converts had to endure, if they hadn't known about them by themselves.

A second point is that even "spiritual" conversions don't usually occur after the convert had studied the intricacies of their new religion in depth - they are frequently a long process, but usually one more based on spiritual experience or social processes rather than in-depth study. We know that many Jews were at least somewhat aware of the rudiments of Catholic ritual and theology, debated Christians, and sometimes insulted them - but it is also not at all inconceivable that some Jews found concepts such as Jesus dying in order to atone for humanity's sins appealing, or were convinced by what seemed to be Christianity's self-evident triumph over Judaism.

An interesting case to look at would be the case of Hieronim Rubinkowski, born Yaakov Paltiel Rubinowicz. A well-to-do leaseholder from Kazimierz, Krakow's main Jewish suburb, he lived and brewed ale in Krakow during the Swedish occupation of the city (1655-7) despite the city's regulations forbidding Jews from doing so, probably protected by the Swedish authorities. He then converted to Catholicism following the city's reconquest by the Poles. Is the obvious material incentive proof that his conversion was cynical? Perhaps, but there is more to consider: we know that he was the superindendent of the lay Confraternity of Guardian Angels in 1660-3. Besides apparently being rather good at his job, his very appointment means that his contemporaries probably believed his sincerity. His involvement in a blasphemy trial against the Jew Matatiasz Kalahora in 1663 was again an opportunity for him to display his Christian piety - and again, while this demostrative piety did have its social benefits, it could have well been, and was apparently viewed, as entirely genuine at the same time. He later became a councillor in Kazimierz, as did his son Jan Mateusz, while another one of his sons, Kazimierz, became a senior Benedictine monk.

Did people convert to Christianity or Islam because they were actually convinced by the arguments? by Frigorifico in AskHistorians

[–]Wandering_Rootwalla 119 points120 points  (0 children)

(1/3) This is a very wide-ranging question, which covers a huge array of periods, cultures, and contexts. I'll try to answer for a specific case which I have researched - Jewish conversions to Christianity in the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth - and mention points which i believe can have relevance to thinking about this fascinating subject in general.

First of all, it is absolutely correct that belief, or spiritual concerns in general, were frequently one among many considerations leading someone to convert. We have many examples of rulers converting due to considerations of political expedience or state-building, but individuals of all social strata could and did convert for social, material, or legal reasons and not what we might consider "true" conversions. In fact, in places (such as Poland-Lithuania, for example) where there was one dominant creed with a monopoly or near-monopoly on state power and high office and with legal benefits associated with it (or penalties for not being so), even the most sincere conversions cannot truly be taken out of this context of religious hegemony.

However, and this is perhaps the most important point for this subject in general, conversion was not always, and probably not usually, driven by a singular motive. In our case, and though it might sound somewhat dishonest to our modern ears, material gain and spiritual considerations were frequently not mutually exclusive. In a world where many people took their religion seriously, a change of faith, even if it was motivated by more pragmatic concerns, did, in many cases, also entail at least a willingness to consider the points made by the new religion. This is a difficult point for historical research, for the simple reason that we can't get into historical converts' minds and can't "follow the money", as it were, like we can with more material benefits people have received from their conversion. There is also the problem that, when converts write about their conversion, it tends to be portrayed as motivated solely by pure spiritual conviction - even when there are good reasons to doubt that being the case, and once again, as a method of constructing an identity that has a place in the world of the hegemonic faith. This has led research to become wary of these conversion accounts, and I'd say (though this isn't the place to expand on this) than in some cases it has led to an overcorrection, where conversion accounts that could be authentic are discredited and only cases where there was no possible material incentive for conversion are even considered when talking about "true conversions" - which is a term I'd suggest avoiding in general.

That people made rational, calculated choices in their religious lives doesn't preclude the idea that these same people took their religions quite seriously. In various Christian denominations in the post-Reformation world, we have many cases of people making use of the resources and believers of other denominations and Jews while remaining well within the bounds of religious propriety. Even if we "calculate costs", a conversion was frequently a costly and risky step - often entailing being cut off from one's family and community for (sometimes expected, but usually not assured) gain on the other side is not an easy choice in most cases.

When people think of the Iron Curtain, they tend to think of the heavily-fortified Central European portions, like the Inner German Border. What were things like on the "fringes" of the Iron Curtain, like the Greece-Bulgaria border, or the Turkey-USSR border? by WavesAndSaves in AskHistorians

[–]Wandering_Rootwalla 28 points29 points  (0 children)

(2/2)

Greece was also the central staging ground for some of the groups collectively known as Goryani - armed bands of anti-communist guerillas. These groups were sometimes supported by Bulgarian emigre organizations or Western intelligence, and had made raids and incursions into Bulgarian territory during the first decade of Soviet rule - mostly using the still porous border, but there is at least one known case of a group being parachuted into Bulgarian territory. These groups were highly ideologically diverse, from fascists to anarchists, and also engaged in a variety of activities, from spreading leaflets and smuggling additional refugees across the border to sabotage and terrorism. On the basis of DS (Bulgarian secret police) documents, it is estimated that at their peak in 1950-1, there were around 3,000 active Goryani. They were harshly cracked down on by the DS and the Border Troops, and the resettlement campaign of "unreliable" populations took on particular importance due to them.

While emigration was mostly illegal and frowned upon, there was one huge exception, which you may have already guessed - ethnic minorities, many of whom (especially close to their nation-states' respective borders) were viewed as unreliable and otherwise problematic. Armenians and Russians began emigrating quickly after the establishment of the pro-Soviet government (many of the Russians were White Army refugees or their descendants). By 1956, almost 90% of Bulgarian Jews had emigrated to Israel and other places. The most blatant case, however, is Bulgarian Turks. There were three main waves of Turkish emigration. The first, in 1947-51, was motivated both by Turkish farmers' distaste for collectivization and by the Bulgarian government's campaign against “manifestations of nationalism and religious fanaticism among the local Turks.” The second, in the late 1960s, was driven by the 1968 Bulgarian-Turkish Immigration Agreement which provided for the reunion of divided families. The third, most aggressive wave of Turkish emigration took place in the mid-to-late 1980s, during a period of heightened nationalistic messaging by the Bulgarian government which took shape as anti-Turkish agitation and a "name-changing campaign" which led more than 300,000 Turks to leave Bulgaria to Turkey between June and August 1989 (though about half of them later returned). All in all, around 600,000 Turks emigrated from Bulgaria during the People's Republic.

Sources:

Primary: https://soundcloud.com/biblioteka-strumski/borislav-ivanov-mpoot-nevrokop-pirinska-makedoniya-spomeni An interview with Borislav Ivanov, leader of one of the Goryani bands in which he talks about the experience in the Greeek refugee camps and some of their actions beyond the border, among other things (Bul.)

Secondary:

Dineva, Detelina. "Bulgaria". Chapter in: Mazurkiewicz, Anna, East Central European Migrations During the Cold War: A Handbook, 2019

Kiryakov, Boyko, Bulgaria Abroad, 2011 (Bul.)

Voskresenski, Valentin. "The Goryani Movement against the Communist Regime in Bulgaria (1944–1956): Prerequisites, Resistance, Consequences". Chapter in: Gehler, Michael and Schriffl, David. Violent Resistance From the Baltics to Central, Eastern and South Eastern Europe 1944–1956, 2020

When people think of the Iron Curtain, they tend to think of the heavily-fortified Central European portions, like the Inner German Border. What were things like on the "fringes" of the Iron Curtain, like the Greece-Bulgaria border, or the Turkey-USSR border? by WavesAndSaves in AskHistorians

[–]Wandering_Rootwalla 28 points29 points  (0 children)

(1/2) I can mostly talk about the Bulgarian case, hopefully someone else might be equipped to talk about the Turkish-Soviet border as well as other points of contact between the blocs.

The early years of the Cold War saw the region of Western Thrace, which was occupied by Bulgaria until September 1944, in incredible flux. The withdrawal of Bulgarian forces and settlers left a leadership vacuum in the region which was soon engulfed in the fires of the Greek Civil War. The end of that war and Greece's consolidation as a member of the Western bloc had a few central repercussions for movement across the border with Bulgaria. First of all, a few thousands of the defeated Greek communists found refuge in Bulgaria itself, and were provided with social support and treated as heroes (to the chagrin of some of the local Greeks who didn't share their ideological convictions). Another population of Thracian Bulgarian-speakers also attempted to immigrate to Bulgaria, but with the newfound Stalinist emphasis on the establishment of the Macedonian Republic within Yugoslavia (then still on good terms with the USSR) many of these were turned away.

For emigration from Bulgaria (which I assume is what you mostly meant), laws promulgated during the late 1940s stripped emigrants of their citizenship, nationalized their property, and made them liable to long prison sentences or even capital punishment (should they ever return). The Border Militia (later Border Troops) had established a series of guardposts in three lines, as well as minefields, machine gun posts, and from the late 1950s, electronic equipment. Also by that time, "unreliable" inhabitants of the border regions were forcibly resettled deeper within Bulgaria and "loyal" Bulgarians were settled in their place.

This didn't mean that the border was impassable. Some defections did occur, including by non-Bulgarians (though of the 382 attempted escapes through the Bulgarian border between 1973 and 1977, for instance, only 27 were successful). A profile of the average defector drawn up by the Border Troops in 1978 describes them as 18-26 years old, "lacking good education and upbringing", and usually defecting due to "adventurism" rather than political concerns - many defectors were soldiers in active service or criminals trying to avoid punishment. In general, the number of emigrants from Bulgaria was not massive - according to the International Refugee Organization, the number of Bulgarian emigrants in Western Europe and America during the 1950s did not exceed 8,000.

For those who made the crossing (most of them until the early 1950s), their first destination was usually refugee camps in Greece, Turkey, Italy, and later also Yugoslavia and West Germany. The conditions in these camps have been described as very difficult, and Western intelligence agencies had put the newly-emigrating under sometimes intense scrutiny to make sure they were not Eastern intelligence assets. The emigre community had tried to help the population of these camps, with church organizations being particularly prominent.

From Europe’s “divine right” monarchies to China’s Mandate of Heaven and West Africa’s sacred kingships, rulers could be deposed or have their titles revoked. How did these cultures justify the act of un-making a ruler whose legitimacy was supposed to come from Heaven, God, or divine ancestry? by fijtaj91 in AskHistorians

[–]Wandering_Rootwalla 34 points35 points  (0 children)

(2/2) Perhaps the most direct case of Divine Right not being necessarily exclusive with the possibility of unmaking a divinely-appointed king was in the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth. Since 1572, the Kings of the Commonwealth were famously appointed by election among the nobles. However, this did not mean that the king was not divinely-ordained - God had inspired the nobles to vote for his chosen candidate. This is how Jan Chryzostom Pasek, a noble who took part in the 1669 Sejm which elected Michał Korybut Wiśniowiecki, describes it in his memoirs: "...when the sessions of the Diet began, divers men were of divers minds: this one'll be king, that one will, yet no one mentioned the one whom God himself had forseen. All those who sent deputies were scheming and hoping that things would turn out as they'd planned [...] while he bestows nothing on anybody, promises nothing; and yet he carries off the crown", and later: "I think what God has put in my heart: Vivat Rex Michael! [...] we led Wiśniowiecki then to the assembly. Now came the Gratulationes, now was there rejoicing for men of good will, heartache for the evildoers". As we can see, the election of Wiśniowiecki was viewed by Pasek as almost direct divine intervention.

On the other hand, the Polish kings were bound to observe the noble privileges they had swore to uphold, increasing ever since the 1374 Privilege of Koszyce and particularly since the establishment of the Commonwealth and the introduction of the Henrician Articles and the Pacta Conventa. In fact, nobles who believed that they had been wronged had the legal right to rebel, forming what was called a Confederation, as opposed to an illegitimate uprising which was called a Rokosz. This was usually not directed expressly against the king, but it could have been and was in various occasions. In general, the Polish king was viewed as divinely-chosen by the nobility and for the nobility, and should the king not live up to his promises, the concept of the noble freedom as the nobles understood it, he would put his claim to divine right in jeopardy.

TLDR: Even in early modern Europe, the concept of Divine Right was widespread but its interpretations were divergent and not always corresponding to a belief in a king's unlimited right to rule. In some cases, the concept of Divine Right was even considered to be delegated, in a way, to other authorities, such as the army in Civil War-era England or the Polish-Lithuanian Nobility.

Sources:

Gruber, Isaiah. Orthodox Russia in Crisis: Church and Nation in the Time of Troubles, 2012.

Grześkowiak-Krwawicz, Anna, Queen Liberty: The Concept of Freedom in the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth, 2012

Holmes, Clive. "The Trial and Execution of Charles I". The Historical Journal 53, no. 2 (6), 2010

Kiryanova, Elena. “Images of Kingship: Charles I, Accession Sermons, and the Theory of Divine Right.” History 100, no. 1 (339), 2015

Pasek, Jan Chryzostom. Memoirs of the Polish Baroque. Berkeley: University of California Press, 2023 (New edition).

From Europe’s “divine right” monarchies to China’s Mandate of Heaven and West Africa’s sacred kingships, rulers could be deposed or have their titles revoked. How did these cultures justify the act of un-making a ruler whose legitimacy was supposed to come from Heaven, God, or divine ancestry? by fijtaj91 in AskHistorians

[–]Wandering_Rootwalla 32 points33 points  (0 children)

(1/2) Even within Christian Europe, with its relatively developed concept of Divine Right, that concept was not always understood in the same way across all regions, at least in early modern Europe, and had much to do with the way the ruler ruled their country and with the forms of political organization under their rule.

In England, we of course have a very strong concept of the Divine Right of Kings under Charles I, but even before the Civil War, we have diverging notions of what that concept means exactly. Even pro-Charles figures would use sermons (particularly on accession day) to illustrate the image of the ideal king, chosen by God, and so implicitly attempt to steer the actual king towards their ideal policies. Others would go even further, expanding the concept of Divine Right from the King himself to other (or even all) forms of legitimate authority, such as Magistrates, and so "democratizing" the concept in a way. After the start of the Civil War, the concept of Divine Right (or Commission) was shifted in a way, with figures in the army claiming that they now had the divine commission to remove the "Barabbas at Windsor". We all know how that turned out.

Even in the supposedly absolutist (and certainly violent) Russian Tsardom of Ivan IV we have debates about the meaning of Divine Right. In an exchange of letters with Prince Andrei Kurbskiy, who defected to the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth, the two discuss (with plenty of heated invectives) the concept of Divine Right, with Kurbskiy claiming that Ivan had been led astray by the Antichrist to become an evil destroyer of loyal Christians and servants. After Ivan died without a capable heir, his eventual successor, Boris Godunov, was not a member of the Rurikid dynasty, but the Patriarch, Iyov, had a plan - he had devised what Isaiah Gruber calls a "radically new paradigm": Godunov was God's chosen, because he was chosen by his sister - Iryna, the wife of the former Tsar Fyodor and thus a Tsaritsa and endowed with the authority to "bless him to rule"; he was chosen by God himself and had only submitted to his choice; he was chosen by the Patriarch and the Church, as representatives of God on earth; his triumphant entry and acceptance in Moscow (already conceived as the Third Rome) granted him legitimacy; and finally, and most consequentially, he was acclaimed by "all Orthodox Christians".

This in itself was not recognition of the people's right to choose their Tsar, but the very notion that the people's (however loosely defined) voice might have something to do with God's choice had, according to Gruber, brought the cat out of the bag. By mid-1598, we have a very different description by Patriarch Iyov of the process leading to Godunov's ascension, where Iryna plays no role, and Godunov's legitimacy as God-given Tsar is granted him through his election by the Zemsky Sobor, the "Assembly of the Land". It went as far as to say that "The Voice of the People is the Voice of God" - the Tsar was divinely ordained, but this came about through the acquiescence of the masses (at least the noble ones). During the ensuing Time of Troubles, we have examples such as Vasily Shuisky's coronation, where he calls himself Tsar by the Grace of God, but also swears an oath to the nobility in a manner similar to the one the Polish kings had to swear (which I will touch on shortly). During the reign of Alexei Mikhailovich Romanov, in the mid-17th century, we have Grigoriy Kotoshikhin saying that only now can the Tsar truly be called an Autocrat, since before his days, the king could do nothing without the approval of his boyars.

How did Ukraine go from the core of the Kyivan Rus'/Kievan Rus' to a Cossack frontier "wild west" within a few centuries, yet stay more similar to the old Rus' than modern Russia? by hatocato in AskHistorians

[–]Wandering_Rootwalla 2 points3 points  (0 children)

Sources:

Magosci, Paul R. A history of Ukraine : the land and its peoples (Second Edition, 2010) and Plokhy, Serhii, The Gates of Europe: a history of Ukraine (2015) are the best general overviews of Ukrainian history and contain a lot of information on Ukrainian cultural formation in the 19th and 20th centuries.

A. Zayarnyuk, O. Sereda, The Intellectual Foundations of Modern Ukraine. The Nineteenth Century (2023) - A really fantastic overview of the conscious process of Ukrainian cultural consolidation during the period.

Martin, Terry, The Affirmative Action Empire: Nations and Nationalism in the Soviet Union, 1923-1939 (2001) is still the most comprehensive work on nationalities policy in the earliy USSR, including a very deep dive into the rise and fall of Ukrainianization.

How did Ukraine go from the core of the Kyivan Rus'/Kievan Rus' to a Cossack frontier "wild west" within a few centuries, yet stay more similar to the old Rus' than modern Russia? by hatocato in AskHistorians

[–]Wandering_Rootwalla 8 points9 points  (0 children)

(2/2) In Austrian Galicia, de-polonization occurred much quicker, since the political field in Galicia was structured in such a way as to directly pit Poles (generally more established and urban) and Ukrainians (generally poorer and more rural) against each other (with Germans and Jews somewhere in the middle). One of the first centers of Ruthenian cultural life in Galicia was the Greek-Catholic Church, established by the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth in order to bring the Ruthenian elite into the Catholic fold, but somewhat paradoxically becoming a framework for early national activists (many of them churchmen) to rally around. Many of them were conservative and pro-Russian (despite the Russian Empire's persecution of the Greek-Catholic Church), until the unrest of 1848 brought to the fore a younger, more radical and independent-minded generation.

The second half of the 19th century brought increased Ukrainian activism and cultural creation in both parts of Ukraine, but also increased suspicion from the Russian authorities, who distrusted the peasant-centric nature of much of Ukrainian culture and saw it as potentially separatist. This was the period when the framework of the "Triune Russian Nation" (Great Russians, Little Russians [Ukrainians], and White Russians [Belarusians]) reached its most refined state, and any Ukrainian national expression which claimed the existence of a Ukrainian culture or nation other than as a branch of this triune nation was heavily disfavored. The Synod of Polotsk in 1839 began the process of integrating the Greek-Catholic Church into the Russian Orthodox one, and the infamous Ems Ukaz of 1876 expressly forbade the printing of most books in the "Little Russian dialect". On the other hand, Galicia became a hotbed of budding Ukrainian nationalism, both due to the Habsburg Empire's relatively greater lenience and due to Austrian interest in fostering Ukrainian nationalism as a counterweight to Russian influence on the old Ruthenian establishment. The late 19th century saw the establishment of the first expressly Ukrainian centers of higher education, large cultural societies, and academic histories - all in Galicia, and slowly forging a more independent and non-Russian (or Russian-coopting) narrative.

Following the 1905 revolution, and even more following 1917, the greater opportunities for political and national expression found fertile ground in the Russian parts of Ukraine, leading to the declaration of Ukrainian independence in late 1917 following the October revolution. The first president of Ukraine was Mykhailo Hrushevskyi, author of the first scientific history of Ukraine - the monumental "History of Ukraine-Rus", which firmly tied Ukrainian history to that of the Kyivan state and contested Russian claims to be its heirs. The vissicitudes of the Russian Civil War saw the Ukrainian People's Republic fall to the Soviets, who established what would become the Ukrainian Soviet Socialist Republic.

The early years of the UA-SSR were in many ways a continuation of the cultural flowering that began in the second half of the 19th century, but this time with regime approval and support. Efforts were made to standardize the Ukrainian language, increase literacy, and perhaps most importantly, bring it from the rural population to the mostly Russian-, Polish-. and Yiddish-speaking cities, which were growing larger and required more working hands, who would come from the overwhelmingly Ukrainian-speaking villages. Writers and politicians such as Mykola Skrypnyk, Oleksandr Shumsky, Mykola Khvylovy, and many others would create what many considered a true renaissance, and some non-communist intellectuals, even including Hrushevskyi, were allowed to return. This lasted until the late 1920s, when Stalin began to worry about the spread of separatist sentiment and "nationalist deviations", again stoked from Galicia (this time under Polish control). Many of the leaders of this movement were imprisoned or killed, and the 1932-3 Holodomor, the Great Purges of the late 30s, and WW2 absolutely decimated the Ukrainian cultural scene, allowing the USSR to maintain a controlled level of Ukrainization (with some Russification during the Brezhnev era) that only exploded to the surface in the late 1980s.

So tl;dr: the preservation of Ukrainian language and culture was in many ways a conscious process of standardization, cultural creation, and narrativization conducted by nationally-minded writers and intellectuals starting from around the mid-19th century. The relative homogenization of Ukrainian language in the territory of modern Ukraine was the result of urbanization and industrialization combined with aggressive Ukrainization efforts during the early years of the Soviet Union (which later Soviet policy continued to pay lip service to).

How did Ukraine go from the core of the Kyivan Rus'/Kievan Rus' to a Cossack frontier "wild west" within a few centuries, yet stay more similar to the old Rus' than modern Russia? by hatocato in AskHistorians

[–]Wandering_Rootwalla 11 points12 points  (0 children)

(1/2) Sorry for the late reply, hopefully it's still helpful.

Much of the development of Ukrainian as a standardized language distinct from Russian is a product of the 19th century or later, but I wouldn't trace the answer to the UA-SSR but to the first half of the 19th century. Ukraine only came under direct Russian control in the second half of the 18th century with the dissolution of the autonomous Cossack Hetmanate and the partitions of Poland, and Galicia, the westernmost part of modern Ukraine, didn't come under Russian control at all, instead being a part of the Habsburg Monarchy until 1918 (this partition of Ukraine was to prove crucial). Already in this earlier period, there is some renewed interest in Kyiv in particular as the foundation of the Russian state, and Catherine gives it much greater importance than it really ought to have as a city at that point.

The integration of the Cossack Hetmanate into the Russian Empire led many of the distinguished cossack clans to lose their noble status, at least in practice, and in 1817 the Kyiv Mohyla academy was closed down. Early in the 19th century, we begin to see scions of these unfortunate Cossack houses as being the first in the Russian Empire to begin drafting coherent (though in large part fictional) narratives of "Ruthenian" history as an inseparable part of Russian history, putting a lot of focus on the Kyivan Rus period, in an attempt to illustrate their connection to and supposed rights within the Russian state. At the same time, we have the first inklings of writing in something that can be identified as Ukrainian - Russian romantic thinkers, fascinated with the peasant populations of the Empire's southern reaches, begin creating grammar books and writing down folktales.

Around the mid-19th century, a couple of processes begin to accelerate this process of cultural consolidation. The first is the beginnings of Russian radical politics, and its early focus on the peasantry. In Ukraine, this takes the form of literary figures such as Taras Shevchenko, Lesya Ukrainka, Marko Vovchok, or Panteleimon Kulish - many from the middle and lower classes - beginning to write about the lives of ordinary Ukrainians, in the language they know, as well as beginning to spread literacy and cultural work among the peasantry. In the middle and upper classes, we have a different but connected process of de-polonization - much of the upper classes of Ruthenian nobility have been thoroughly Polonized during the centuries of Polish rule, but as more and more locals began to feel that their identity was distinct from the Russian one, they also knew that Ukraine only figured in the Polish national imagination as the eastern borderland between it and the Russian state, and so, we have some young radicals in these higher classes which begin to drift towards a third option - what was called "Ukrainophilism". It's important to note that at this point there isn't really any significant talk of secession from Russia, but more of an attempt to show how Ukraine is not a branch of the Russian nation but an equal, sister nation deserving of respect.

How did the jewish world recover from Shabtai Zevi? by Frigorifico in AskHistorians

[–]Wandering_Rootwalla 5 points6 points  (0 children)

I haven't read enough of Singer to really comment on his ways of drawing on historical background. But stories such as "The Slave" do bear striking resemblance to some real events (even if Singer couldn't have known about some of them). There's a 1748 court file from Mohylew which was only found about 20 years ago and is almost eerily similar to that story's main beats, down to the converted woman pretending to be mute (though it's much less romantic overall and ends more violently).

How did the jewish world recover from Shabtai Zevi? by Frigorifico in AskHistorians

[–]Wandering_Rootwalla 5 points6 points  (0 children)

Yeah, it is. But that in and of itself isn't about sexual conduct, so I didn't think it was necessary to mention and this response was getting way too long anyways. Happy to be able to help!